Nursing Elites

1. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed dapagliflozin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Genital infections
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Genital infections. Dapagliflozin, a medication used in diabetes mellitus type 2, is associated with an increased risk of genital infections. Its mechanism of action involves promoting glucose excretion through the urine, creating a favorable environment for microbial growth in the genital area. Monitoring for genital infections is crucial when a client is prescribed dapagliflozin. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is not a common adverse effect of dapagliflozin since it does not directly lower blood glucose levels. Hyperglycemia (choice C) is also unlikely as dapagliflozin is intended to help lower blood glucose levels. Nausea (choice D) is a less common side effect of dapagliflozin compared to genital infections.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed sitagliptin. The nurse should include which instruction in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Take this medication with meals.
• B. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Report any signs of pancreatitis to the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the teaching plan for a client prescribed sitagliptin is to report any signs of pancreatitis to the healthcare provider. Sitagliptin is generally taken with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Therefore, choice A, 'Take this medication with meals,' is incorrect. Sitagliptin does not have specific interactions with alcohol, so there is no need to advise the client to avoid alcohol, making choice B incorrect. Taking sitagliptin on an empty stomach is not recommended, so choice C is also incorrect. Pancreatitis is a rare but serious side effect of sitagliptin, so it is crucial for the client to report any signs or symptoms to their healthcare provider promptly.

3. A client diagnosed with angina has been prescribed nitrate isosorbide dinitrate. Which instruction should the practical nurse reinforce in this client's teaching?

• A. Discontinue the medication if dizziness occurs.
• B. Avoid getting up quickly. Always rise slowly.
• C. Take the medication with or without food.
• D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction that the practical nurse should reinforce with a client prescribed nitrate isosorbide dinitrate is to avoid getting up quickly and to rise slowly. Nitrates can cause orthostatic hypotension, a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. By rising slowly, the client can prevent the occurrence of orthostatic hypotension and its associated symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because discontinuing the medication without consulting a healthcare provider can be dangerous, taking the medication with or without food does not impact its effectiveness, and increasing potassium intake is not directly related to the use of nitrate isosorbide dinitrate.

4. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed apixaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Increased risk of bleeding
• B. Decreased risk of bleeding
• C. Increased risk of infection
• D. Decreased risk of infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of bleeding. Apixaban is an anticoagulant medication that works by preventing blood clots. While this is beneficial for individuals with a history of deep vein thrombosis, it also increases the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, or blood in the urine or stool. Monitoring for bleeding is crucial to ensure the client's safety and to take appropriate actions if necessary. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because apixaban does not decrease the risk of bleeding, increase the risk of infection, or decrease the risk of infection. The primary concern when administering apixaban is monitoring for potential bleeding complications.

5. A healthy 68-year-old client asks the practical nurse (PN) whether they should take the pneumococcal vaccine. Which statement should the PN offer to the client that provides the most accurate information about this vaccine?

• A. The vaccine is given annually before the flu season to those older than 50 years.
• B. The immunization is recommended for children younger than 2 years old and all adults 65 years or older.
• C. The vaccine is for all ages and is given primarily to those traveling overseas to areas of infection.
• D. The vaccine will prevent the occurrence of pneumococcal pneumonia for up to 5 years.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because it is usually recommended that children younger than 2 years old and adults 65 years or older get vaccinated against pneumococcal disease. This is because these age groups are more susceptible to severe complications from the infection. While the vaccine may be recommended for certain individuals with specific medical conditions at any age, the primary target groups are as mentioned in option B. Option A is incorrect as the pneumococcal vaccine is not given annually like the flu vaccine. Option C is incorrect because the vaccine is not primarily for travelers but for certain age groups and individuals with medical conditions at risk. Option D is incorrect as the vaccine's duration of protection can vary, and it is not guaranteed to prevent pneumococcal pneumonia for up to 5 years.

Similar Questions