HESI LPN
HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank
1. A client with asthma is receiving long-term glucocorticoid therapy. The nurse includes a risk for impaired skin integrity on the client's problem list. What is the rationale for including this problem?
- A. Abnormal fat deposits impair circulation
- B. Frequent diarrhea can lead to skin issues
- C. Thinned skin bruises easily
- D. Decreased serum glucose prolongs healing time
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Glucocorticoids can cause skin thinning, which increases the likelihood of bruising. Thinning of the skin due to glucocorticoid therapy makes it more fragile and prone to injury, such as bruising, even with minimal trauma. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because abnormal fat deposits impairing circulation, frequent diarrhea causing skin issues, and decreased serum glucose prolonging healing time are not direct effects of glucocorticoid therapy on skin integrity.
2. A client admitted with shortness of breath and palpitations currently takes an antiarrhythmic medication, dronedarone. Which action should the nurse take to prevent arrhythmias?
- A. Measure orthostatic blood pressure
- B. Obtain a 12-lead ECG reading daily
- C. Assess the client's apical pulse daily
- D. Provide continuous ECG monitoring
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action to prevent arrhythmias in a client taking an antiarrhythmic medication like dronedarone is to provide continuous ECG monitoring. This is essential because antiarrhythmic drugs can sometimes cause pro-arrhythmic effects, which may lead to dangerous heart rhythm disturbances. Continuous ECG monitoring allows for real-time detection of any abnormal rhythms, enabling prompt intervention. Measuring orthostatic blood pressure, obtaining a 12-lead ECG reading daily, and assessing the client's apical pulse daily are important assessments in general patient care but may not specifically prevent arrhythmias in this scenario.
3. A client with a history of stroke is prescribed dabigatran. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Dry mouth
- B. Weight gain
- C. Headache
- D. Dizziness
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Headache. Dabigatran, an anticoagulant, can cause headache as a potential side effect. Headache is important to monitor as it may indicate adverse effects or complications that need attention. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, weight gain, and dizziness are not commonly associated with dabigatran use.
4. What instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a client prescribed ranitidine for a peptic ulcer?
- A. Take this medication in the morning before breakfast.
- B. Take this medication with meals.
- C. Avoid taking this medication with antacids.
- D. Take this medication at bedtime.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed ranitidine for a peptic ulcer is to take the medication in the morning before breakfast. This timing helps reduce stomach acid production throughout the day, providing optimal therapeutic effects. Option B is incorrect because taking ranitidine with meals is not the recommended timing. Option C is incorrect as there is no specific contraindication against taking ranitidine with antacids. Option D is incorrect as the medication should not be taken at bedtime but rather in the morning before breakfast.
5. A 59-year-old client is prescribed furosemide 40 mg twice a day for the management of heart failure. The practical nurse should monitor the client for the development of which complication?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyperchloremia
- C. Hypercalcemia
- D. Hypophosphatemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the kidneys, leading to increased potassium excretion and potentially causing hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can lead to cardiac irregularities, making it crucial for the practical nurse to monitor the client for this electrolyte imbalance. Choice B, Hyperchloremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Choices C and D, Hypercalcemia and Hypophosphatemia, are not common complications of furosemide therapy.
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