HESI LPN
HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank
1. A client with asthma is receiving long-term glucocorticoid therapy. The nurse includes a risk for impaired skin integrity on the client's problem list. What is the rationale for including this problem?
- A. Abnormal fat deposits impair circulation
- B. Frequent diarrhea can lead to skin issues
- C. Thinned skin bruises easily
- D. Decreased serum glucose prolongs healing time
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Glucocorticoids can cause skin thinning, which increases the likelihood of bruising. Thinning of the skin due to glucocorticoid therapy makes it more fragile and prone to injury, such as bruising, even with minimal trauma. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because abnormal fat deposits impairing circulation, frequent diarrhea causing skin issues, and decreased serum glucose prolonging healing time are not direct effects of glucocorticoid therapy on skin integrity.
2. A 6-month-old infant is prescribed digoxin for the treatment of congestive heart failure. Which observation by the practical nurse (PN) warrants immediate intervention for signs of digoxin toxicity?
- A. Apical heart rate of 60 beats/min
- B. Sweating across the forehead
- C. Poor sucking effort
- D. Respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A heart rate of 60 beats/min for a 6-month-old infant warrants immediate intervention as it falls below the normal range. The normal heart rate for a 6-month-old is 80 to 150 beats/min when awake, and a rate of 70 beats/min while sleeping is considered within normal limits. Bradycardia (heart rate <60 beats/min) in infants can be a sign of digoxin toxicity, necessitating prompt evaluation and intervention to prevent adverse effects. Sweating across the forehead (Choice B) is a non-specific symptom and may not directly indicate digoxin toxicity. Poor sucking effort (Choice C) and a respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min (Choice D) are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity and do not require immediate intervention in the context of this question.
3. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed diazepam. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?
- A. Drowsiness
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Nausea
- D. Headache
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct. Diazepam, a medication commonly used to treat anxiety disorders, can lead to drowsiness as a potential side effect. It is important for clients taking diazepam to be cautious about activities that require alertness, such as driving, due to the risk of drowsiness associated with this medication. Choice B, dry mouth, is not typically associated with diazepam use. Choice C, nausea, is less common as a side effect of diazepam compared to drowsiness. Choice D, headache, is also less common and typically not a significant side effect of diazepam.
4. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed pioglitazone. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Liver toxicity
- C. Kidney stones
- D. Bone fractures
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, liver toxicity. Pioglitazone is known to cause liver toxicity, so it is essential for the nurse to monitor the client's liver function while on this medication. Monitoring liver function tests can help detect any signs of liver damage early, allowing for timely intervention to prevent serious complications.
5. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed linagliptin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Pancreatitis
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Nausea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed linagliptin, the nurse should monitor for pancreatitis as a potential adverse effect. Linagliptin has been associated with rare cases of pancreatitis; therefore, monitoring for signs and symptoms of pancreatitis such as severe abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting is crucial to ensure timely intervention and management.
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