HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Practice Questions
1. A client with asthma is receiving albuterol (Proventil). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?
- A. Hypoglycemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachycardia. Albuterol can cause tachycardia as a side effect due to its stimulant effect on the heart. It acts as a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, leading to increased heart rate. Hypoglycemia (choice A) is not a common side effect of albuterol. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is also not typically associated with albuterol use. Hypotension (choice D) is less likely to occur as albuterol usually causes tachycardia rather than hypotension.
2. The nurse is caring for a 4-year-old child with a greenstick fracture. In explaining this type of fracture to the parents, the best response by the nurse should be that
- A. A child's bone is more flexible and can be bent 45 degrees before breaking
- B. Bones of children are more porous than adults and often have incomplete breaks
- C. Compression of porous bones produces a buckle or torus type break
- D. Bone fragments often remain attached by a periosteal hinge
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Greenstick fractures are common in children because their bones are softer and more porous than adult bones, leading to incomplete breaks when force is applied. Choice A is incorrect as greenstick fractures are not due to bone flexibility but rather the porous nature of children's bones. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a buckle or torus type break, which is not characteristic of a greenstick fracture. Choice D is incorrect as greenstick fractures do not involve bone fragments remaining attached by a periosteal hinge.
3. With an alert of an internal disaster and the need for beds, the charge nurse is asked to list clients who are potential discharges within the next hour. Which client should the charge nurse select?
- A. An elderly client who has had type 2 diabetes for over 20 years, admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis 24 hours ago
- B. An adolescent admitted the prior night with Tylenol intoxication
- C. A middle-aged client with an internal automatic defibrillator and complaints of 'passing out at unknown times' admitted yesterday
- D. A school-age child diagnosed with suspected bacterial meningitis and was admitted at the change of shifts
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) that is being well-managed and has shown improvement within 24 hours is more stable and can be considered for discharge sooner than those with more acute or unstable conditions. Choice B is incorrect as Tylenol intoxication may require further monitoring and intervention. Choice C is incorrect as a client with an automatic defibrillator and episodes of passing out needs careful evaluation and monitoring. Choice D is incorrect as suspected bacterial meningitis is a serious condition that typically requires a longer hospital stay for treatment and observation.
4. The nurse is discussing dietary intake with an adolescent who has acne. The most appropriate statement for the nurse is:
- A. Eat a balanced diet for your age.
- B. Increase your intake of protein and Vitamin A.
- C. Decrease fatty foods from your diet.
- D. Do not use caffeine in any form, including chocolate.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate advice for an adolescent with acne is to eat a balanced diet for their age. A balanced diet that includes a variety of nutrients is essential for overall health, including skin health. While protein and Vitamin A are important for skin health, focusing solely on increasing these nutrients may not address the overall dietary needs. Similarly, solely decreasing fatty foods or avoiding caffeine may not be the most effective advice for managing acne. Therefore, the best advice is to promote a balanced diet tailored to the adolescent's age.
5. A client with a fractured femur is in Buck's traction. The nurse should assess for which of the following complications?
- A. Foot drop
- B. Urinary retention
- C. Constipation
- D. Muscle spasms
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Foot drop is a potential complication of prolonged immobility and improper positioning in traction. In Buck's traction, the lower extremity is suspended to immobilize and align the fractured femur. Prolonged suspension of the leg in traction can lead to nerve damage, specifically to the common peroneal nerve, resulting in foot drop. Urinary retention, constipation, and muscle spasms are not directly associated with Buck's traction and a fractured femur.
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