HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Final Exam
1. A client with asthma is prescribed a corticosteroid inhaler. What instruction should the nurse give about the inhaler?
- A. Use it only during asthma attacks
- B. Rinse the mouth after each use to prevent oral thrush
- C. It will provide immediate relief during an asthma attack
- D. Increase the dose if breathing does not improve
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using a corticosteroid inhaler is to rinse the mouth after each use to prevent the development of oral thrush, a common side effect of these inhalers. Choice A is incorrect as corticosteroid inhalers are often used regularly as a maintenance treatment, not just during asthma attacks. Choice C is incorrect because corticosteroid inhalers provide long-term control of asthma symptoms, not immediate relief during an attack. Choice D is incorrect and potentially dangerous advice as increasing the dose without medical guidance can lead to adverse effects.
2. What intervention has the highest priority for a client with a fourth-degree midline laceration following the vaginal delivery of an 8-pound 10-ounce infant?
- A. Administer a prescribed stool softener
- B. Administer prescribed PRN sleep medications
- C. Encourage breastfeeding to promote uterine involution
- D. Encourage the use of prescribed analgesic perineal sprays
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering a prescribed stool softener is the highest priority intervention for a client with a fourth-degree midline laceration to prevent straining during bowel movements, which could potentially harm the healing laceration. Stool softeners help in maintaining soft stools, reducing the risk of injury to the suture line. Administering PRN sleep medications, encouraging breastfeeding, or promoting the use of analgesic perineal sprays are important aspects of care but are not the priority in this situation. Stool softeners play a crucial role in preventing complications and promoting healing in such cases, making it the most urgent intervention.
3. The nurse is assessing a client with a suspected diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which clinical sign is most indicative of DVT?
- A. Redness and warmth over the affected area
- B. Decreased peripheral pulses
- C. Cyanosis of the toes
- D. Muscle cramps in the calf
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Redness and warmth over the affected area are classic signs of inflammation, which commonly occur in deep vein thrombosis (DVT) due to the obstruction of blood flow. These symptoms result from the body's inflammatory response to the blood clot. Choices B, C, and D are less indicative of DVT. Decreased peripheral pulses may occur in arterial insufficiency rather than DVT. Cyanosis of the toes indicates decreased oxygenation and is more characteristic of arterial issues. Muscle cramps in the calf are nonspecific and can be caused by various conditions, not solely DVT.
4. The nurse is assessing a client with a suspected pulmonary embolism (PE). Which symptom is most indicative of this condition?
- A. Bilateral leg swelling.
- B. Sudden onset of chest pain.
- C. Gradual onset of dyspnea.
- D. Decreased breath sounds on auscultation.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Gradual onset of dyspnea.' While pulmonary embolism can present with various symptoms, the most common include sudden onset of dyspnea, chest pain (often pleuritic in nature), tachypnea, and tachycardia. Bilateral leg swelling is more commonly associated with conditions like deep vein thrombosis, not pulmonary embolism. Decreased breath sounds on auscultation may be seen in conditions like pneumothorax, not typically in pulmonary embolism. Therefore, the gradual onset of dyspnea is the most indicative symptom of pulmonary embolism in this scenario.
5. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's medication list during a routine visit. Which action is most important to ensure medication safety?
- A. Ask the client about any allergies to medications
- B. Review the purposes of each medication
- C. Check for potential drug interactions
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A comprehensive review of allergies, medication purposes, and potential interactions is crucial for ensuring medication safety. Asking about allergies helps prevent adverse reactions, reviewing medication purposes ensures the correct use of each drug, and checking for potential drug interactions reduces the risk of harmful effects when medications interact. Choosing 'All of the above' is the correct answer because all three actions are essential steps to enhance medication safety. Options A, B, and C individually play vital roles in promoting medication safety, making option D the most appropriate choice.
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