a client with a recent total knee replacement is scheduled for physical therapy the client refuses to participate stating that the pain is too intense
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HESI LPN

HESI PN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet

1. A client with a recent total knee replacement is scheduled for physical therapy. The client refuses to participate, stating that the pain is too intense. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering pain medication before physical therapy helps manage the pain, making it easier for the client to participate in the necessary exercises to improve recovery and prevent complications such as joint stiffness. Choice B is not the first step as addressing the pain should take precedence. Choice C is important but should come after managing the pain to facilitate participation. Choice D involves another healthcare provider and is not the immediate action needed in this situation.

2. When caring for a client with colostomy, which topical skin preparation should the PN apply around the stoma?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Stomadhesive.' Stomadhesive is a protective barrier used around the stoma to prevent skin irritation and to secure the colostomy bag. This preparation helps to maintain skin integrity and prevent complications such as skin breakdown. Antiseptic cream (Choice A) is not typically used around the stoma as it can irritate the skin. Petroleum jelly (Choice B) is also not recommended as it can interfere with the adhesive properties of the colostomy appliance. Cornstarch (Choice C) is not suitable for application around the stoma as it can promote moisture and lead to skin irritation.

3. Which of the following is NOT a second-line agent used for the treatment of Tuberculosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Rifabutin. Rifabutin is actually a first-line drug used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Choices A, B, and D (Amikacin, Moxifloxacin, and Cycloserine) are considered second-line agents for tuberculosis treatment. These drugs are used when the first-line medications are either ineffective or cannot be tolerated by the patient.

4. A client reports being able to swallow only small bites of solid food and liquids for the last 3 months. The PN should assess the client for what additional information?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: History of alcohol or tobacco use. A history of alcohol or tobacco use is significant as both are risk factors for esophageal cancer or other esophageal disorders that could cause difficulty swallowing (dysphagia). This information helps in evaluating the underlying cause of the symptom. Choices A, B, and D are less relevant in this context. While a past traumatic injury to the neck could potentially cause swallowing difficulties, given the chronic nature of the symptom in this case, it is more important to focus on potential risk factors associated with esophageal disorders like alcohol and tobacco use. Daily consumption of hot beverages and daily dietary intake of roughage are less likely to be directly related to the client's current swallowing issue.

5. While conducting a mental status examination of a newly admitted male client, the PN notes that his head is lowered, and he shows no emotion or expression when speaking. Based on these observations, what documentation should the PN include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Flat affect.' Flat affect refers to a lack of emotional expression, which the PN observed in the client. This observation is significant as it can provide valuable information for the client's mental health assessment and subsequent care planning. Choice A, 'Impaired verbalization,' does not capture the lack of emotional expression seen in the client. Choice B, 'Depressed mood,' may not accurately reflect the observed behavior of the client. Choice D, 'Diminished LOC,' pertains to the level of consciousness, which was not indicated as being a concern in the scenario provided.

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