Nursing Elites

1. A client with a recent total knee replacement is scheduled for physical therapy. The client refuses to participate, stating that the pain is too intense. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer the prescribed analgesic and encourage participation after it takes effect.
• B. Reschedule the physical therapy session for later in the day.
• C. Explain the importance of physical therapy for recovery.
• D. Notify the physical therapist of the client's refusal.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering pain medication before physical therapy helps manage the pain, making it easier for the client to participate in the necessary exercises to improve recovery and prevent complications such as joint stiffness. Choice B is not the first step as addressing the pain should take precedence. Choice C is important but should come after managing the pain to facilitate participation. Choice D involves another healthcare provider and is not the immediate action needed in this situation.

2. A male client who has been diagnosed with schizophrenia is withdrawn, isolates himself in the day room, and answers questions with one or two-word responses. This morning, the practical nurse observes that he is diaphoretic and is pacing in the hall. Which intervention is most important for the PN to implement?

• A. Persuade the client to lie down
• B. Provide a drink high in electrolytes
• C. Observe the client during the shift
• D. Measure appropriate vital signs

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Measuring vital signs is crucial in this situation as it helps to determine if the client is experiencing a physical health issue or if the symptoms are related to a mental health crisis, such as anxiety or agitation. The presence of diaphoresis and pacing may indicate physiological changes requiring immediate attention. Providing a drink high in electrolytes or persuading the client to lie down may not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Simply observing the client during the shift without taking necessary actions to assess his physiological status may delay appropriate intervention.

3. You have a patient who has just had a diagnostic arthroscopy. You are instructing him about what to do when he gets home. Which of the following would you NOT instruct him to do?

• A. Resume normal activities within 12 hours so as to help reduce the swelling
• B. Elevate the extremity for 24 – 48 hours
• C. Apply ice to the area involved intermittently
• D. Report severe pain to the physician immediately

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients should rest and avoid normal activities for a short period after arthroscopy to allow healing and prevent swelling, which could worsen with early activity. Elevation and icing are recommended post-procedure to reduce swelling and pain. Instructing the patient to resume normal activities within 12 hours could lead to increased swelling and delayed healing. Reporting severe pain is crucial as it could indicate a complication. Therefore, the correct instruction is not to resume normal activities immediately after arthroscopy.

4. You are teaching students about how hyperosmotic agents (osmotic diuretics) are used to treat intracranial pressure. Which of the following is NOT one of the functions of hyperosmotic agents?

• A. Reduces brain metabolism and systemic blood pressure
• B. Reduces cerebral edema
• C. Dehydrates the brain
• D. Draws fluids from extravascular spaces into the plasma

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hyperosmotic agents primarily work by reducing cerebral edema, dehydrating the brain, and drawing fluids from extravascular spaces into the plasma. However, they do not have a direct effect on reducing brain metabolism or systemic blood pressure. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B is correct as hyperosmotic agents do help in reducing cerebral edema. Choice C is accurate as hyperosmotic agents dehydrate the brain. Choice D is also true as these agents draw fluids from extravascular spaces into the plasma.

5. A homeless male client with a history of alcohol abuse had a CVA 10 years ago that resulted in left hemiparesis. Today he is brought to the clinic reporting pain in his left leg. He is afebrile, has 4+ pitting edema in the lower left leg, and has minimal swelling of the right leg. Which action should the PN implement first?

• A. Obtain a blood alcohol test
• B. Inspect legs for infection or trauma
• C. Complete a mental status exam
• D. Inquire about dietary salt intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Inspecting the legs for infection or trauma is the priority to assess the cause of the pain and edema, which could indicate deep vein thrombosis or cellulitis. Checking for signs of infection or trauma is crucial in this scenario to rule out potentially serious conditions. Obtaining a blood alcohol test, completing a mental status exam, or inquiring about dietary salt intake can be considered after addressing the immediate concern of identifying any infection or trauma in the leg.

Similar Questions