Nursing Elites

1. A client with a peptic ulcer had a partial gastrectomy and vagotomy (Billroth I). In planning the discharge teaching, the client should be cautioned by the nurse about which of the following?

• A. Sit up for at least 30 minutes after eating
• B. Avoid fluids between meals
• C. Increase the intake of high-carbohydrate foods
• D. Avoid eating large meals that are high in simple sugars and liquids

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Avoid eating large meals that are high in simple sugars and liquids.' Clients who have undergone partial gastrectomy are at risk of dumping syndrome, which can occur due to the rapid emptying of stomach contents into the small intestine. Consuming large meals high in simple sugars and liquids can exacerbate this syndrome, leading to symptoms like abdominal cramping and diarrhea. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to preventing dumping syndrome and are not the priority concerns for a client post-partial gastrectomy.

2. A client undergoing surgery is being taught about the use of a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump by a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will ask my spouse to push the button when I am sleeping
• B. I will use the PCA pump to keep me comfortable during the night
• C. I will ask the nurse to increase the dosage if I still feel pain
• D. I will press the button for medication as soon as I feel pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients should press the button on the PCA pump when they feel pain to receive controlled doses of medication. Option A is incorrect as the client should be the one to self-administer the medication through the PCA pump. Option B is incorrect as the primary purpose of the PCA pump is to manage pain, not to keep the client comfortable. Option C is incorrect because the client should not adjust the dosage themselves; instead, they should communicate any pain concerns to the healthcare provider.

3. Which dietary restriction should be taught to a client with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Increase potassium-rich foods
• B. Limit phosphorus and potassium intake
• C. Encourage increased protein intake
• D. Increase fluid intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Limit phosphorus and potassium intake. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter these minerals from the blood, leading to their accumulation and potential complications. Restricting phosphorus and potassium intake is crucial in managing the progression of the disease. Choice A is incorrect as increasing potassium-rich foods can worsen the condition. Choice C is also incorrect as excessive protein intake can put more strain on the kidneys. Choice D is not the priority; rather, fluid intake should be monitored based on individual needs and stage of kidney disease.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hr postoperative following rhinoplasty. Which of the following manifestations requires immediate action by the nurse?

• A. Increase in frequency of swallowing.
• B. Moderate sanguineous drainage on the drip pad.
• C. Bruising to the face.
• D. Absent gag reflex.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase in frequency of swallowing. After rhinoplasty, an increase in frequency of swallowing may indicate possible bleeding, which requires immediate action by the nurse. The client could be experiencing postoperative bleeding, and prompt intervention is necessary to prevent complications. Choice B, moderate sanguineous drainage on the drip pad, is expected in the immediate postoperative period and does not require immediate action unless it becomes excessive. Choice C, bruising to the face, is a common postoperative finding and does not require immediate action unless it is excessive or affects the airway. Choice D, absent gag reflex, would not be expected immediately following rhinoplasty and would require intervention, but the manifestation of increased swallowing frequency is a higher priority due to its association with potential bleeding.

5. What is the priority for a client with dehydration?

• A. Administer antiemetics to prevent nausea
• B. Monitor electrolyte levels to prevent imbalances
• C. Administer oral rehydration solutions
• D. Administer intravenous fluids

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority for a client with dehydration is to monitor electrolyte levels to prevent imbalances. Dehydration can lead to electrolyte disturbances, which can have serious consequences. Administering antiemetics (Choice A) may help with nausea but does not address the root cause of dehydration. Administering oral rehydration solutions (Choice C) can be beneficial, but monitoring electrolyte levels is crucial in managing dehydration. Administering intravenous fluids (Choice D) is important in severe cases of dehydration, but monitoring electrolytes should come first to assess the extent of the imbalance and guide fluid replacement therapy effectively.

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