a client with a peptic ulcer had a partial gastrectomy and vagotomy billroth i in planning the discharge teaching the client should be cautioned by th
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ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test

1. A client with a peptic ulcer had a partial gastrectomy and vagotomy (Billroth I). In planning the discharge teaching, the client should be cautioned by the nurse about which of the following?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Avoid eating large meals that are high in simple sugars and liquids.' Clients who have undergone partial gastrectomy are at risk of dumping syndrome, which can occur due to the rapid emptying of stomach contents into the small intestine. Consuming large meals high in simple sugars and liquids can exacerbate this syndrome, leading to symptoms like abdominal cramping and diarrhea. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to preventing dumping syndrome and are not the priority concerns for a client post-partial gastrectomy.

2. How should a healthcare professional assess and manage a patient with ascites?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! When managing a patient with ascites, monitoring abdominal girth is crucial as it helps assess the extent of fluid retention. Administering diuretics is also essential to help reduce fluid buildup in the body, thereby managing ascites effectively. Option B is incorrect as pain relief is not the primary intervention for ascites. Option C is incorrect as restricting fluid intake can worsen the condition by causing dehydration and further fluid imbalances. Option D is incorrect as administering albumin and checking electrolyte levels are not first-line interventions for managing ascites; these interventions may be considered in specific cases but are not the initial steps in managing ascites.

3. A client with diabetes is being discharged. What is an essential teaching point?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Instructing the client to administer insulin before meals is a crucial teaching point for a client with diabetes. This action ensures proper glucose management by helping to control blood sugar levels. Monitoring blood sugar levels once a week (Choice A) may not be frequent enough to manage diabetes effectively. While regular exercise (Choice C) is beneficial for glucose control, the immediate administration of insulin is more critical at the time of discharge. Administering oral hypoglycemics as needed (Choice D) is inappropriate as it does not address the need for insulin administration for a client being discharged.

4. Which of the following is an expected side effect of furosemide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, including potassium, leading to hypokalemia. Choice A, Bradycardia, is incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause a decrease in heart rate. Choice C, Increased blood pressure, is incorrect as furosemide is actually used to lower blood pressure by reducing fluid volume. Choice D, Increased urine output, is a common effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not an adverse side effect.

5. Which lifestyle modification should be emphasized for a client with hypertension?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to reduce caffeine and alcohol intake for a client with hypertension. Caffeine and alcohol can increase blood pressure, so reducing their intake can help manage hypertension. Increasing sodium intake (Choice A) is not recommended for hypertension as it can lead to fluid retention and increased blood pressure. Eating carbohydrate-rich meals (Choice C) is also not ideal as excessive carbohydrates can contribute to weight gain, which can worsen hypertension. Similarly, increasing protein intake (Choice D) is not a primary focus for managing hypertension unless a specific protein deficiency is present.

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