a client with a peptic ulcer had a partial gastrectomy and vagotomy billroth i in planning the discharge teaching the client should be cautioned by th
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ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test

1. A client with a peptic ulcer had a partial gastrectomy and vagotomy (Billroth I). In planning the discharge teaching, the client should be cautioned by the nurse about which of the following?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Avoid eating large meals that are high in simple sugars and liquids.' Clients who have undergone partial gastrectomy are at risk of dumping syndrome, which can occur due to the rapid emptying of stomach contents into the small intestine. Consuming large meals high in simple sugars and liquids can exacerbate this syndrome, leading to symptoms like abdominal cramping and diarrhea. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to preventing dumping syndrome and are not the priority concerns for a client post-partial gastrectomy.

2. What are the signs and symptoms of fluid overload, and how should a nurse manage this condition?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fluid overload manifests as edema, weight gain, and shortness of breath. These symptoms occur due to an excess of fluid in the body. Managing fluid overload involves interventions such as monitoring fluid intake and output, adjusting diuretic therapy, restricting fluid intake, and collaborating with healthcare providers to address the underlying cause. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not represent typical signs of fluid overload. Fever, cough, chest pain, increased heart rate, low blood pressure, increased blood pressure, and jugular venous distention are not primary indicators of fluid overload.

3. A client with diabetes is being discharged. What is the most important teaching point?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important teaching point for a client with diabetes being discharged is to administer insulin before meals as prescribed. This is crucial for managing blood sugar levels effectively and preventing complications. Monitoring blood sugar levels once in the morning (Choice A) is not sufficient for proper diabetes management, as levels can fluctuate throughout the day. Taking medication only when feeling unwell (Choice C) is not recommended as diabetes treatment is based on a regular schedule. Monitoring glucose levels weekly (Choice D) is not frequent enough to provide the necessary information for managing diabetes on a day-to-day basis.

4. Which dietary advice is most appropriate for a client with chronic kidney disease?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate dietary advice for a client with chronic kidney disease is to limit intake of potassium-rich foods. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys have difficulty filtering potassium from the blood, leading to high levels that can be harmful. Therefore, reducing potassium intake is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are not the best options for individuals with chronic kidney disease. Increasing intake of fruits and vegetables (choice A) may actually increase potassium consumption. Increasing intake of dairy products (choice C) can lead to higher phosphorus and potassium levels. Reducing protein-rich foods (choice D) is not the primary focus in the early stages of chronic kidney disease, as protein is necessary for overall health unless kidney function declines significantly.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a calcium level of 8.0 mg/dL. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct! A calcium level of 8.0 mg/dL indicates hypocalcemia. Hypocalcemia can lead to increased neuromuscular excitability, manifesting as tingling of the extremities. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect findings associated with other electrolyte imbalances or conditions and are not typically related to hypocalcemia. Constipation is commonly seen in hypokalemia, absent deep-tendon reflexes are associated with hypermagnesemia, and nausea and vomiting are more indicative of hypercalcemia.

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