Nursing Elites

1. A client with a peptic ulcer had a partial gastrectomy and vagotomy (Billroth I). In planning the discharge teaching, the client should be cautioned by the nurse about which of the following?

• A. Sit up for at least 30 minutes after eating
• B. Avoid fluids between meals
• C. Increase the intake of high-carbohydrate foods
• D. Avoid eating large meals that are high in simple sugars and liquids

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Avoid eating large meals that are high in simple sugars and liquids.' Clients who have undergone partial gastrectomy are at risk of dumping syndrome, which can occur due to the rapid emptying of stomach contents into the small intestine. Consuming large meals high in simple sugars and liquids can exacerbate this syndrome, leading to symptoms like abdominal cramping and diarrhea. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to preventing dumping syndrome and are not the priority concerns for a client post-partial gastrectomy.

2. A nurse is contributing to the plan of care for an older adult client who has difficulty sleeping. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Give a bedtime snack
• B. Encourage a short nap in the afternoon
• C. Encourage exercise right before bed
• D. Establish a regular exercise routine 2 hours or more before bedtime

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Establishing a regular exercise routine at least 2 hours before bedtime promotes better sleep in older adults. Giving a bedtime snack (choice A) may disrupt sleep due to digestion, encouraging a short nap in the afternoon (choice B) can interfere with nighttime sleep, and encouraging exercise right before bed (choice C) can increase alertness and make it harder to fall asleep.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. The nurse obtained a verbal prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Request a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours.
• B. Check the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 minutes.
• C. Obtain a prescription for restraint within 4 hours.
• D. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a situation where a verbal prescription for restraints is obtained for a client experiencing acute mania, the nurse should document the client's condition every 15 minutes. This frequent documentation allows for accurate monitoring of the client's condition, ensuring safety and compliance. Requesting a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours (Choice A) is not necessary as the focus should be on monitoring the client's condition. Checking the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 minutes (Choice B) is not directly related to the need for restraints in this scenario. Obtaining a prescription for restraint within 4 hours (Choice C) is not a priority when a verbal prescription is already obtained and immediate action is needed for the client's safety.

4. What is the most important nursing action when administering IV potassium?

• A. Monitor for decreased urine output
• B. Administer via IV push
• C. Administer slowly and dilute in IV fluids
• D. Ensure the client drinks 500 mL of water before administration

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important nursing action when administering IV potassium is to administer it slowly and dilute it in IV fluids. This approach helps prevent irritation and hyperkalemia. Monitoring for decreased urine output (Choice A) is important but not as critical as ensuring the safe administration of IV potassium. Administering potassium via IV push (Choice B) is unsafe and can lead to adverse effects. Ensuring the client drinks water before administration (Choice D) is not directly related to the safe administration of IV potassium.

5. What should be included in dietary teaching for a client with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet
• B. Limit potassium and phosphorus intake
• C. Increase intake of protein-rich foods
• D. Increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to limit potassium and phosphorus intake for a client with chronic kidney disease. Excessive potassium and phosphorus can be harmful to individuals with compromised kidney function. Option A is incorrect because increasing potassium-rich foods can exacerbate hyperkalemia in individuals with kidney disease. Option C may not be ideal as excessive protein intake can put extra strain on the kidneys. Option D is not the priority; while adequate fluid intake is important, it is not the primary focus when teaching dietary considerations for chronic kidney disease.

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