a client with a peptic ulcer had a partial gastrectomy and vagotomy billroth i in planning the discharge teaching the client should be cautioned by th
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ATI LPN

ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test

1. A client with a peptic ulcer had a partial gastrectomy and vagotomy (Billroth I). In planning the discharge teaching, the client should be cautioned by the nurse about which of the following?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Avoid eating large meals that are high in simple sugars and liquids.' Clients who have undergone partial gastrectomy are at risk of dumping syndrome, which can occur due to the rapid emptying of stomach contents into the small intestine. Consuming large meals high in simple sugars and liquids can exacerbate this syndrome, leading to symptoms like abdominal cramping and diarrhea. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to preventing dumping syndrome and are not the priority concerns for a client post-partial gastrectomy.

2. A client with coronary artery disease (CAD) is taking a low-dose aspirin daily. The nurse is reinforcing teaching with the client. The nurse should include that this medication has which of the following therapeutic effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Antiplatelet. Aspirin works by inhibiting platelet aggregation, making it an antiplatelet agent. This effect helps reduce the risk of blood clot formation in clients with CAD. Choice A, Analgesic, is incorrect because aspirin's primary action in this context is not pain relief. Choice C, Anticoagulant, is incorrect as aspirin does not directly inhibit coagulation factors. Choice D, Thrombolytic, is incorrect as aspirin does not actively break down clots but rather prevents their formation.

3. What are the complications of untreated fluid overload?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Untreated fluid overload can lead to complications such as pulmonary edema and congestive heart failure. Pulmonary edema occurs when excess fluid accumulates in the lungs, leading to difficulty breathing and potentially life-threatening respiratory distress. Congestive heart failure can result from the heart's inability to pump effectively due to the excess fluid volume, leading to symptoms such as fatigue, shortness of breath, and fluid retention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypertension, liver failure, pulmonary embolism, and dehydration are not the primary complications directly associated with untreated fluid overload.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is in the early stages of hypovolemic shock. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the early stages of hypovolemic shock, the body initiates compensatory mechanisms to maintain perfusion. One of these mechanisms is an increased respiratory rate to improve oxygen delivery. This helps to offset the decreased circulating blood volume. A heart rate of 60/min (choice A) is not expected in hypovolemic shock; instead, tachycardia is a common finding due to the body's attempt to maintain cardiac output. Increased urinary output (choice B) is not typically seen in hypovolemic shock as the body tries to conserve fluid. Hypothermia (choice D) is usually a late sign of shock when the body's compensatory mechanisms are failing, and perfusion is severely compromised.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor for this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's serum potassium levels to prevent hyperkalemia, which can be a potential side effect of spironolactone. Monitoring total bilirubin levels (A) is not specifically required for clients taking spironolactone. Urine ketones (B) are not directly influenced by spironolactone use. Platelet count (D) is not typically monitored in clients taking spironolactone.

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