a client with a peptic ulcer had a partial gastrectomy and vagotomy billroth i in planning the discharge teaching the client should be cautioned by th
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ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test

1. A client with a peptic ulcer had a partial gastrectomy and vagotomy (Billroth I). In planning the discharge teaching, the client should be cautioned by the nurse about which of the following?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Avoid eating large meals that are high in simple sugars and liquids.' Clients who have undergone partial gastrectomy are at risk of dumping syndrome, which can occur due to the rapid emptying of stomach contents into the small intestine. Consuming large meals high in simple sugars and liquids can exacerbate this syndrome, leading to symptoms like abdominal cramping and diarrhea. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to preventing dumping syndrome and are not the priority concerns for a client post-partial gastrectomy.

2. What is the most important action when providing wound care to a client with a pressure ulcer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Performing a wound culture before applying ointment is crucial when providing wound care to a client with a pressure ulcer. This action helps identify any underlying infections, allowing healthcare providers to select the most appropriate treatment. Options A, B, and D are not as critical as performing a wound culture, as they focus on wound dressing and cleansing rather than identifying potential infections.

3. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with potential pneumonia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correctly assessing a patient with potential pneumonia involves listening to lung sounds and monitoring oxygen saturation. Lung sounds can reveal abnormal breath sounds associated with pneumonia, such as crackles or diminished breath sounds. Oxygen saturation monitoring helps in detecting respiratory distress, a common complication of pneumonia. Monitoring for fever and sputum production (Choice B) is important but not as specific as assessing lung sounds and oxygen saturation. Auscultating heart sounds and checking for cyanosis (Choice C) are not primary assessments for pneumonia. Monitoring for chest pain and administering oxygen (Choice D) are relevant interventions but do not address the initial assessment of pneumonia.

4. Which of the following is the best intervention for managing dehydration?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best intervention for managing dehydration is to monitor fluid and electrolyte levels. This approach allows healthcare providers to assess the severity of dehydration, determine appropriate fluid replacement therapy, and prevent complications. Administering antiemetics (Choice A) may help with nausea but does not address the underlying issue of dehydration. Encouraging the client to drink more fluids (Choice C) may be appropriate for mild dehydration but can be inadequate for moderate to severe cases. Administering intravenous fluids (Choice D) is crucial for severe dehydration or cases where oral rehydration is ineffective, but monitoring fluid and electrolyte levels should precede this intervention.

5. A nurse is assisting with an in-service about hepatitis A for a group of staff nurses. The nurse should include that hepatitis A is transmitted through which of the following methods?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Consumption of contaminated food. Hepatitis A is primarily transmitted through the ingestion of contaminated food or water. Airborne droplets and sexual contact are not common modes of transmission for hepatitis A. While contact with contaminated surfaces can play a role in the spread of some infections, hepatitis A is not typically transmitted through this route.

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