a client with a peptic ulcer had a partial gastrectomy and vagotomy billroth i in planning the discharge teaching the client should be cautioned by th
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ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test

1. A client with a peptic ulcer had a partial gastrectomy and vagotomy (Billroth I). In planning the discharge teaching, the client should be cautioned by the nurse about which of the following?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Avoid eating large meals that are high in simple sugars and liquids.' Clients who have undergone partial gastrectomy are at risk of dumping syndrome, which can occur due to the rapid emptying of stomach contents into the small intestine. Consuming large meals high in simple sugars and liquids can exacerbate this syndrome, leading to symptoms like abdominal cramping and diarrhea. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to preventing dumping syndrome and are not the priority concerns for a client post-partial gastrectomy.

2. A client has developed phlebitis at the IV site. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client develops phlebitis at the IV site, the priority action for the nurse is to discontinue the IV and notify the provider. Phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and removing the IV can help prevent further complications. Applying a warm compress may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the root cause. Monitoring for infection is important, but immediate action to remove the source of inflammation is crucial. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication is not the first-line intervention for phlebitis; removal of the IV is necessary.

3. What are the complications of untreated Type 1 diabetes?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Diabetic ketoacidosis and retinopathy are indeed common complications of untreated Type 1 diabetes. Diabetic ketoacidosis occurs when the body starts breaking down fat for fuel, leading to a dangerous buildup of ketones in the blood. Retinopathy refers to damage to the blood vessels of the retina due to high blood sugar levels over time. The other choices, hypoglycemia and neuropathy (choice B), hypotension and kidney failure (choice C), and infection and fluid overload (choice D) are not typically the primary complications associated with untreated Type 1 diabetes.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being taught by a nurse about measures to improve breathing. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to 'Use pursed-lip breathing during physical activity.' Pursed-lip breathing is a technique that helps improve breathing efficiency in individuals with COPD by preventing airway collapse and allowing for better air exchange. Choice B is incorrect because breathing deeply and quickly can lead to hyperventilation and worsen symptoms in COPD patients. Choice C is incorrect because the incentive spirometer is a device used to encourage deep breathing and improve lung function, so it should not be avoided. Choice D is incorrect because physical activity is important for maintaining overall health and should be encouraged in a controlled and appropriate manner for individuals with COPD.

5. Which of the following is an early indication that a tracheostomy client requires suctioning?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Irritability is indeed an early sign that a tracheostomy client may require suctioning. When a tracheostomy client becomes irritable, it can indicate that there is a need for suctioning to clear the airway. Bradycardia (choice A) refers to a slow heart rate and is not typically a direct indication for suctioning. Hypotension (choice C) indicates low blood pressure and is not specifically related to the need for suctioning. Decreased respiratory rate (choice D) can be a sign of respiratory distress, but irritability is a more direct and early indication of the need for suctioning in a tracheostomy client.

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