Nursing Elites

1. A client with a peptic ulcer had a partial gastrectomy and vagotomy (Billroth I). In planning the discharge teaching, the client should be cautioned by the nurse about which of the following?

• A. Sit up for at least 30 minutes after eating
• B. Avoid fluids between meals
• C. Increase the intake of high-carbohydrate foods
• D. Avoid eating large meals that are high in simple sugars and liquids

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Avoid eating large meals that are high in simple sugars and liquids.' Clients who have undergone partial gastrectomy are at risk of dumping syndrome, which can occur due to the rapid emptying of stomach contents into the small intestine. Consuming large meals high in simple sugars and liquids can exacerbate this syndrome, leading to symptoms like abdominal cramping and diarrhea. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to preventing dumping syndrome and are not the priority concerns for a client post-partial gastrectomy.

2. What are the nursing interventions for a patient receiving anticoagulant therapy?

• A. Monitor INR levels and check for bleeding
• B. Administer antiplatelet therapy
• C. Check for signs of DVT and provide anticoagulation
• D. Administer aspirin and monitor for bleeding

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct nursing intervention for a patient receiving anticoagulant therapy is to monitor INR levels and check for signs of bleeding. Monitoring the INR levels helps assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulant therapy, while checking for bleeding is essential due to the increased risk associated with anticoagulants. Choice B is incorrect as antiplatelet therapy is not the standard treatment for patients on anticoagulant therapy. Choice C is incorrect as providing additional anticoagulation is not a direct nursing intervention in this scenario. Choice D is incorrect because administering aspirin, an antiplatelet medication, along with anticoagulants can increase the risk of bleeding and is generally avoided.

3. A client is having difficulty voiding after removal of an indwelling urinary catheter. What should the nurse do?

• A. Assess for bladder distention after 6 hours
• B. Encourage the client to use a bedpan in the supine position
• C. Restrict the client's intake of oral fluids
• D. Pour warm water over the client's perineum

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to pour warm water over the client's perineum. This action helps stimulate voiding post-catheterization by promoting relaxation and providing sensory input. Assessing for bladder distention after 6 hours (Choice A) is important but not the immediate intervention needed for difficulty voiding. Encouraging the client to use a bedpan in the supine position (Choice B) may not effectively address the issue of post-catheterization voiding difficulty. Restricting the client's intake of oral fluids (Choice C) is not appropriate and can lead to dehydration, which is not helpful in promoting voiding.

4. A nurse is preparing to perform a sterile dressing change. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when setting up the sterile field?

• A. Place the cap from the solution sterile side up on a clean surface.
• B. Open the outermost flap of the sterile kit away from the body.
• C. Place the sterile dressing within 1.25 cm (0.5 in) of the edge of the sterile field.
• D. Set up the sterile field 5 cm (2 in) above waist level.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To maintain the sterility of the field, the nurse should place the cap from the solution sterile side up on a clean surface. This action helps prevent contamination. Choice B is incorrect because opening the outermost flap toward the body increases the risk of introducing contaminants onto the sterile field. Choice C is incorrect as the sterile dressing should be placed at least 2.5 cm (1 in) from the edge of the sterile field to prevent accidental contamination. Choice D is incorrect because setting up the sterile field above waist level could lead to inadvertent contact and compromise the field's sterility.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who is receiving filgrastim. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare professional monitor to determine the effectiveness of the treatment?

• A. WBC count.
• B. Serum potassium.
• C. Hemoglobin level.
• D. Serum creatinine.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Filgrastim works by stimulating the production of white blood cells. Therefore, monitoring the white blood cell (WBC) count is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment. Choice B, serum potassium, is not directly affected by filgrastim therapy. Choice C, hemoglobin level, is important but not the primary indicator of filgrastim's effectiveness. Choice D, serum creatinine, is unrelated to the action of filgrastim and would not reflect its effectiveness.

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