a client with a peptic ulcer had a partial gastrectomy and vagotomy billroth i in planning the discharge teaching the client should be cautioned by th
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ATI LPN

ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test

1. A client with a peptic ulcer had a partial gastrectomy and vagotomy (Billroth I). In planning the discharge teaching, the client should be cautioned by the nurse about which of the following?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Avoid eating large meals that are high in simple sugars and liquids.' Clients who have undergone partial gastrectomy are at risk of dumping syndrome, which can occur due to the rapid emptying of stomach contents into the small intestine. Consuming large meals high in simple sugars and liquids can exacerbate this syndrome, leading to symptoms like abdominal cramping and diarrhea. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to preventing dumping syndrome and are not the priority concerns for a client post-partial gastrectomy.

2. What is the primary action the nurse should take first for a client with a pressure ulcer who has a serum albumin level of 3 g/dL?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to consult with a dietitian to create a high-protein diet. A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL indicates hypoalbuminemia, which can impair wound healing. Consulting with a dietitian to optimize the client's protein intake is crucial in promoting wound healing for pressure ulcers. Increasing the protein intake in the diet (Choice A) may not be sufficient without proper guidance from a dietitian. Increasing the IV fluid infusion rate (Choice C) is not directly related to addressing the protein deficiency. Administering a protein supplement (Choice D) should be guided by a healthcare professional's recommendation after consulting with a dietitian.

3. A nurse on a med surge unit has received change of shift report and will care for 4 clients. Which of the following clients' needs will the nurse assign to an AP?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because reapplying a condom catheter for a client with urinary incontinence is a task that can be safely assigned to an assistive personnel (AP) as it falls within their scope of practice. Choice A involves the assessment of a client with aspiration pneumonia, which requires nursing judgment. Choice B requires teaching and guidance, which is the responsibility of the nurse. Choice D involves applying a sterile dressing, which requires nursing skills and knowledge.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who is receiving filgrastim. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare professional monitor to determine the effectiveness of the treatment?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Filgrastim works by stimulating the production of white blood cells. Therefore, monitoring the white blood cell (WBC) count is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment. Choice B, serum potassium, is not directly affected by filgrastim therapy. Choice C, hemoglobin level, is important but not the primary indicator of filgrastim's effectiveness. Choice D, serum creatinine, is unrelated to the action of filgrastim and would not reflect its effectiveness.

5. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is concerned about weight gain during pregnancy. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During pregnancy, a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus should aim for a weight gain similar to someone without diabetes to ensure a healthy pregnancy. Choice A is incorrect because weight gain should not be less; it should be adequate for pregnancy. Choice C is inaccurate as gaining some weight is essential for a healthy pregnancy. Choice D is incorrect as gaining more weight than necessary can pose risks for both the client and the baby.

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