HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is being taught how to administer insulin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Administer the insulin in the same body area each time.
- B. Store the insulin according to the manufacturer's instructions.
- C. Rotate injection sites within the same body area.
- D. Inject the insulin at a 45-degree angle.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to rotate injection sites within the same body area. This practice helps prevent lipodystrophy, a condition characterized by the thickening or thinning of subcutaneous fat at the injection sites, which can affect insulin absorption. Choice A is incorrect because administering insulin in the same area each time can lead to lipodystrophy. Choice B is incorrect as insulin should be stored according to the manufacturer's instructions, which may include refrigeration. Choice D is incorrect because the angle of insulin injection (usually 90 degrees) is determined by the length of the needle and the amount of subcutaneous fat, not a fixed 45-degree angle.
2. A client with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF) is admitted with dyspnea and a productive cough. What is the most important assessment for the LPN/LVN to perform?
- A. Measure the client's urine output.
- B. Auscultate the client's lung sounds.
- C. Assess the client's apical pulse.
- D. Check the client's blood pressure.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Auscultating lung sounds is crucial for assessing the extent of congestion in a client with CHF. The presence of crackles or wheezing can indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a common complication of CHF. Monitoring urine output (Choice A) is important to assess renal function but is not the priority in this situation. While assessing the apical pulse (Choice C) and checking blood pressure (Choice D) are important in managing CHF, they do not provide immediate information about the respiratory status and congestion level in the lungs, making auscultating lung sounds the most critical assessment.
3. A client is 1-day postoperative and reports a pain level of 10 on a scale of 0 to 10. After reviewing the client’s medication administration record, which of the following medications should be administered?
- A. Meperidine 75 mg IM
- B. Fentanyl 50 mcg/hr transdermal patch
- C. Morphine 2 mg IV
- D. Oxycodone 10 mg PO
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Morphine IV is the most appropriate choice for severe postoperative pain due to its rapid onset and effectiveness. Meperidine is not preferred due to its potential side effects, and fentanyl patches are typically used for chronic pain, not acute postoperative pain. Oxycodone taken orally is not ideal for providing immediate relief in this situation.
4. When conducting an admission assessment, the LPN should ask the client about the use of complementary healing practices. Which statement is accurate regarding the use of these practices?
- A. Complementary healing practices interfere with the efficacy of the medical model of treatment.
- B. Conventional medications are likely to interact with folk remedies and cause adverse effects.
- C. Many complementary healing practices can be used in conjunction with conventional practices.
- D. Conventional medical practices will ultimately replace the use of complementary healing practices.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When considering the use of complementary healing practices, it is important to acknowledge that many of these practices can be safely integrated with conventional treatments to provide holistic care. Choice A is incorrect because complementary healing practices can complement traditional medical approaches rather than interfere with their efficacy. Choice B is incorrect as interactions between conventional medications and folk remedies may vary, but not all interactions lead to adverse effects. Choice D is incorrect as conventional medical practices and complementary healing practices can coexist and each offer benefits in healthcare.
5. The caregiver is assessing an 8-month-old child with atonic cerebral palsy. Which statement from the caregiver supports the presence of this problem?
- A. When I place my finger in the left hand, the baby does not respond with a grasp.
- B. My baby does not seem to track objects when I move toys in front of their face.
- C. When it thundered loudly last night, the baby did not even startle.
- D. When I place the baby in a supine position, that's how I find the baby.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The statement 'When I place the baby in a supine position, that's how I find the baby' supports the presence of atonic cerebral palsy. In this type of cerebral palsy, the child may have poor muscle tone, making it difficult for them to roll from a back-lying position. This inability to roll indicates a lack of muscle tone, which is a characteristic feature of atonic cerebral palsy. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to the muscle tone issues typical of atonic cerebral palsy. Choice A focuses on a lack of grasp response, which may suggest motor issues but not specifically atonic cerebral palsy. Choice B refers to visual tracking, and choice C is about the startle reflex, neither of which are defining characteristics of atonic cerebral palsy.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access