Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of hypertension is being discharged on a low-sodium diet. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will use fresh herbs and spices instead of salt.
• B. I will avoid canned soups and processed foods.
• C. I can eat as much bacon and sausage as I want because they taste good.
• D. I will read food labels to check for sodium content.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because bacon and sausage are high in sodium, which contradicts the low-sodium diet requirement. Consuming them freely would contribute to increased sodium intake, which is not suitable for managing hypertension. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate appropriate understanding and actions for a low-sodium diet, such as using alternatives to salt, avoiding processed foods, and checking food labels for sodium content.

2. The LPN/LVN is assisting in the care of a client who has been prescribed enoxaparin (Lovenox) for the prevention of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which instruction should the nurse reinforce with the client?

• A. Avoid consuming foods high in vitamin K while taking this medication.
• B. Administer the injection in the same site each time for consistency.
• C. Report any unusual bleeding or bruising to your healthcare provider.
• D. Do not take aspirin if you experience any mild pain or discomfort.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to reinforce with the client is to report any unusual bleeding or bruising to their healthcare provider. This is crucial because unusual bleeding or bruising may indicate excessive anticoagulation, a potential side effect of enoxaparin. Prompt reporting to a healthcare provider is necessary to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is not directly related to enoxaparin and vitamin K interactions. Choice B is incorrect as rotating injection sites is essential for preventing tissue damage and irritation. Choice D is also incorrect as aspirin can increase the risk of bleeding when taken with enoxaparin.

3. The LPN/LVN is assisting with the care of a client who has been diagnosed with a myocardial infarction (MI). Which laboratory test result would the nurse expect to see elevated within the first 24 hours of the client's admission?

• A. Serum troponin
• B. Serum creatinine
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Serum albumin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevated serum troponin levels are indicative of myocardial damage and are commonly used as a diagnostic marker for myocardial infarction. Troponin levels typically rise within a few hours of an MI and remain elevated for several days, making it a crucial test for early detection and monitoring of cardiac injury. Serum creatinine is not typically elevated in the acute phase of a myocardial infarction. Serum sodium and serum albumin levels are not directly associated with myocardial infarction and are unlikely to be elevated in the first 24 hours following an MI.

4. A client has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Monitor heart rate daily.
• C. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
• D. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor heart rate daily.' When a client is prescribed digoxin, it is essential to monitor heart rate daily because digoxin can cause bradycardia, a condition characterized by a slow heart rate. Monitoring the heart rate regularly allows the client to promptly identify any signs of bradycardia and seek medical attention if needed. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking digoxin with food, avoiding grapefruit juice, and increasing potassium-rich foods are not specific instructions related to managing the side effects or monitoring parameters of digoxin therapy.

5. A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor which laboratory test to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation, the nurse should assess the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) levels. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client's anticoagulation levels are within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it reflects the level of fibrinogen in the blood, which is involved in the clotting process.

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