a client with a diagnosis of anemia is being discharged with a prescription for ferrous sulfate what should the nurse include in the teaching plan
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 2 Exam 1

1. A client with a diagnosis of anemia is being discharged with a prescription for ferrous sulfate. What should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Expect stools to be dark in color.' Dark stools are a common side effect of iron supplementation due to the unabsorbed iron, and this is not a cause for concern. Choice A is incorrect because taking iron with milk can decrease its absorption due to calcium binding. Choice C is incorrect as there are no specific recommendations to take ferrous sulfate before bedtime. Choice D is also incorrect as vitamin C actually enhances iron absorption and should not be avoided.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of seizure disorder who is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin). Which laboratory value is most important to monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring the phenytoin level is crucial to ensure it is within the therapeutic range and to prevent toxicity. Monitoring sodium level is important in clients receiving lithium, not phenytoin. Hemoglobin level and white blood cell count are not directly related to phenytoin therapy monitoring.

3. A client comes to the antepartal clinic and tells the nurse that she is 6 weeks pregnant. Which sign is she most likely to report?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amenorrhea is the absence of menstrual periods and is a common early sign of pregnancy, typically reported by a client who is 6 weeks pregnant. Decreased sexual libido (Choice A) may or may not be experienced in early pregnancy, but it is not as specific as amenorrhea. Quickening (Choice C) refers to fetal movements felt by the mother, which usually occurs around 18-20 weeks of pregnancy, not at 6 weeks. Nocturia (Choice D) is waking up at night to urinate and is not typically associated with early pregnancy.

4. A postoperative client complains of sudden shortness of breath. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assessing the client's lung sounds is the most appropriate initial action when a postoperative client complains of sudden shortness of breath. This step helps the nurse evaluate the respiratory status and detect abnormalities such as decreased breath sounds or crackles, which could indicate a serious condition like a pulmonary embolism. Administering oxygen (Choice A) may be necessary but should come after assessing the lung sounds to ensure the appropriate intervention. Calling the healthcare provider (Choice B) or preparing for a chest x-ray (Choice C) can be important subsequent actions based on the findings from the lung sound assessment, but they are not the first priority in this situation.

5. The client with diabetes is being taught about the importance of foot care. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because soaking feet daily can lead to skin breakdown, making it inappropriate for clients with diabetes. Inspecting feet daily for cuts or blisters (Choice A), wearing properly fitting shoes (Choice C), and avoiding walking barefoot (Choice D) are all appropriate measures to maintain foot health for clients with diabetes.

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