a client whose finger stick glucose is 210 mgdl is receiving a sliding scale dose of short acting insulin before breakfast in what sequence should the
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI CAT Exam 2022

1. In what sequence should the nurse prepare the dose of insulin for a client whose finger stick glucose is 210 mg/dl and is receiving a sliding scale dose of short-acting insulin before breakfast?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct sequence for preparing a dose of insulin involves ensuring proper aseptic technique. First, clean the vial's rubber stopper with an alcohol swab to prevent contamination. Second, withdraw the correct dose of insulin to be administered. Lastly, inject air equal to the insulin dose into the vial to maintain proper pressure for withdrawing the medication. This sequence ensures the medication is prepared safely and accurately. Choice A is correct as it follows this sequence. Choices B, C, and D present incorrect sequences that may compromise patient safety by not following the correct aseptic technique. Choice B injects air into the vial before withdrawing insulin, which is incorrect. Choice C reverses the order of withdrawing insulin and injecting air. Choice D withdraws the insulin before injecting air, which can affect the pressure inside the vial and lead to inaccurate dosing.

2. A client with rheumatoid arthritis reports a new onset of increasing fatigue. What intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first intervention for a client with rheumatoid arthritis reporting increasing fatigue is to assess the client for pallor. Fatigue can be a sign of anemia or other complications; assessing for pallor can help determine if anemia is the cause. Option A is incorrect as it does not address the underlying cause of fatigue. Option B assumes the cause without further assessment. Option D is important for overall health but assessing for pallor takes precedence to identify immediate issues related to fatigue.

3. A client with a BMI of 60.2 kg/m² is admitted to the intensive care unit 3 weeks after gastric bypass with gastric rupture and impending multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS). What should the nurse prepare to implement first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this critical situation with gastric rupture and impending MODS, the priority intervention should be mechanical ventilation. This client is at risk of respiratory compromise due to the severity of the condition. Platelet transfusion (Choice B) is not the priority as there is no indication of significant bleeding. Loop diuretic therapy (Choice C) and cyanocobalamin administration (Choice D) are not the immediate priorities in this scenario and would not address the urgent need for respiratory support.

4. A heparin infusion is prescribed for a client who weighs 220 pounds. After administering a bolus dose of 80 units/kg, the nurse calculates the infusion rate for the heparin sodium at 18 units/kg/hour. The available solution is Heparin Sodium 25,000 units in 5% Dextrose Injection 250 ml. The nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver how many ml/hour?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate, first, find the total dose required per hour, which is the patient's weight (220 pounds) multiplied by the prescribed rate (18 units/kg/hour). This equals 3960 units/hour. Next, determine how many ml of the solution contain 25,000 units; this is 250 ml. Divide the total dose required per hour (3960 units) by the units per ml (25,000 units/250 ml) to find how many ml are needed per hour. This results in 27 ml/hour. Therefore, the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver 27 ml/hour. Choice A (18) is incorrect as it does not account for the concentration of the heparin solution. Choices C (36) and D (45) are incorrect as they do not reflect the accurate calculations based on the patient's weight and the heparin concentration in the solution.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer an IM injection to a 6-month-old child. Which injection site is best for the nurse to use?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The vastus lateralis is the preferred site for IM injections in infants due to their limited muscle mass and safety. Infants do not have well-developed muscle mass, making the vastus lateralis the best option for IM injections. The deltoid muscle is typically used for older children and adults. Ventrogluteal and dorsogluteal sites are not recommended for infants due to safety concerns, including the risk of damaging the sciatic nerve. Therefore, the correct choice is the vastus lateralis for IM injections in infants.

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