HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam Test Bank
1. A client who will be going to surgery states no known allergies to any medications. What is the most important nursing action for the nurse to implement next?
- A. Assess client’s knowledge of an allergic response
- B. Record 'no known drug allergies' on the preoperative checklist
- C. Flag 'no known drug allergies' on the front of the chart
- D. Assess client’s allergies to non-drug substances
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important action to take in this situation is to record 'no known drug allergies' on the preoperative checklist. This ensures that all healthcare staff involved in the surgery are aware of the client's stated lack of drug allergies, helping to prevent any potential adverse reactions. Assessing the client's knowledge of an allergic response (Choice A) may be valuable but is not the most crucial action at this point. Flagging 'no known drug allergies' on the front of the chart (Choice C) is less practical and visible compared to documenting it on the preoperative checklist. Assessing the client’s allergies to non-drug substances (Choice D) is not the priority in this scenario where the focus is on medications due to the upcoming surgery.
2. Two weeks following a Billroth II (gastrojejunostomy), a client develops nausea, diarrhea, and diaphoresis after every meal. When the nurse develops a teaching plan for this client, which expected outcome statement is the most relevant?
- A. Describes a schedule for antacid use in combination with other prescribed medications
- B. Selects a pattern of small meals interspersed with fluid intake
- C. Commits to engaging in a variety of stress reduction techniques
- D. Expresses a commitment to decrease nicotine intake
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The symptoms described are indicative of dumping syndrome, a common complication following a Billroth II procedure. Dumping syndrome presents with symptoms such as nausea, diarrhea, and diaphoresis after meals. To manage these symptoms effectively, the client should opt for small, frequent meals and avoid consuming fluids along with meals. Choice A is inaccurate because antacid use does not directly address the symptoms of dumping syndrome. Choice C is irrelevant as stress reduction techniques are not the primary intervention for dumping syndrome. Choice D is unrelated to the symptoms experienced by the client, making it an inappropriate choice.
3. An adolescent male client is admitted to the hospital. Based on Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development, which nursing intervention best assists this adolescent’s adjustment to his hospital stay?
- A. Invite him to participate in the evening group activity
- B. Schedule frequent private phone calls to his parents
- C. Provide access to a variety of video games in his room
- D. Encourage him to learn his way around the hospital
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Inviting the adolescent to participate in group activities aligns with Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, specifically the stage of developing social relationships. By engaging in group activities, the adolescent can interact with peers, fostering social skills and aiding in adjustment to the hospital environment. Choice B is incorrect as excessive reliance on phone calls to parents may hinder the adolescent's autonomy and independence, which are crucial aspects of Erikson's theory for this age group. Choice C, providing access to video games, while potentially offering entertainment, does not directly address the need for social interaction and relationship-building. Choice D, encouraging the adolescent to learn his way around the hospital, is important for familiarity but may not directly address the need for social interaction and adjustment in the hospital setting.
4. Following rectal surgery, a female client is very anxious about the pain she may experience during defecation. The nurse should collaborate with the healthcare provider to administer which type of medication?
- A. Bulk-forming agent
- B. Antianxiety agent
- C. Stool softener
- D. Stimulant cathartic
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After rectal surgery, a stool softener is the most appropriate medication to help prevent pain and straining during defecation. Stool softeners work by increasing the water content of the stool, making it easier to pass without discomfort. Bulk-forming agents (Choice A) help add mass to the stool but may not address the immediate post-operative discomfort. Antianxiety agents (Choice B) would address the anxiety but not the physical discomfort. Stimulant cathartics (Choice D) are not recommended after rectal surgery as they can cause cramping and increased bowel movements, potentially exacerbating pain.
5. The nurse assesses a client one hour after starting a transfusion of packed red blood cells and determines that there are no indications of a transfusion reaction. What instructions should the nurse provide the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who is working with the nurse?
- A. Continue to measure the client’s vital signs every thirty minutes until the transfusion is complete
- B. Since a reaction did not occur, the priority is to maintain client comfort during the transfusion
- C. Monitor the client carefully for the next three hours and report the onset of a reaction immediately
- D. Notify the nurse when the transfusion has finished, so further client assessment can be done
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for the UAP is to continue measuring the client’s vital signs every thirty minutes until the transfusion is complete. This is important because continuous monitoring of vital signs during the transfusion helps detect any delayed reactions promptly. Choice B is incorrect because maintaining client comfort is important but not the priority over monitoring vital signs. Choice C is incorrect as monitoring should be ongoing and not limited to a specific time frame. Choice D is incorrect as the UAP should monitor vital signs throughout the transfusion, not just at the end.
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