Nursing Elites

1. A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) through a central line suddenly develops dyspnea, chest pain, and a drop in blood pressure. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Stop the TPN infusion.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Place the client in Trendelenburg position.
• D. Administer oxygen at 2 liters/minute.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing the client in Trendelenburg position should be the initial action as it can help manage a suspected air embolism, a potential complication of TPN administration. This position helps trap air in the apex of the atrium, reducing the risk of air reaching the pulmonary circulation and causing further harm. Once the client is in a safe position, further actions such as stopping the TPN infusion, notifying the healthcare provider, and administering oxygen can be taken as appropriate.

2. The nurse is planning care for a 16-year-old with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA). The nurse includes activities to strengthen and mobilize the joints and surrounding muscles. Which physical therapy regimen should the nurse encourage the adolescent to implement?

• A. Exercise in a swimming pool.
• B. Splint affected joints during activity.
• C. Perform passive range of motion exercises twice daily.
• D. Begin a training program of lifting weights and running.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Exercising in a swimming pool is beneficial for adolescents with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis as it reduces stress on the joints while allowing movement and strengthening. The buoyancy of water supports the body, making exercises easier and less painful, while also providing resistance to strengthen muscles. This form of exercise can help improve joint mobility and overall function without causing excessive strain on the joints. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because splinting affected joints, performing passive range of motion exercises, or beginning a training program of lifting weights and running can potentially exacerbate symptoms and cause additional stress on the joints, which is not recommended for individuals with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis.

3. A client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is learning to self-administer insulin. Which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Store the insulin in the freezer.
• B. Administer the insulin at the same site each time.
• C. Rotate injection sites within the same region.
• D. Shake the vial vigorously before drawing up the insulin.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client learning to self-administer insulin is to rotate injection sites within the same region. This practice helps prevent lipodystrophy, which is a condition characterized by fat tissue changes due to repeated injections in the same spot, and also ensures consistent absorption of insulin throughout the body. Storing insulin in the freezer is incorrect as it can lead to denaturation of the insulin. Administering the insulin at the same site each time can cause lipodystrophy and inconsistent absorption. Shaking the vial vigorously before drawing up the insulin is also incorrect as it can lead to insulin degradation.

4. The community mental health nurse is planning to visit four clients with schizophrenia today. Which client should the nurse see first?

• A. The mother who took her children from school because aliens were after them.
• B. The young man who has a history of substance abuse and no telephone.
• C. The newly diagnosed client who needs to be evaluated for medication compliance.
• D. The young woman who believes she is to blame for her recent miscarriage.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The mother who took her children from school due to delusions of aliens poses a significant risk to her children and herself. This situation requires immediate attention to ensure the safety and well-being of all involved. Choice B is concerning due to the history of substance abuse, but the immediate risk to life and safety as in Choice A takes precedence. Choice C, although important, does not present an immediate danger as the delusional belief of aliens. Choice D, while emotionally distressing, does not pose an immediate threat as the situation described in Choice A.

5. A 60-year-old man presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
• B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
• C. Diabetes insipidus
• D. Hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The presentation of a 60-year-old man with fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, hyperglycemia, and ketonuria strongly suggests type 1 diabetes mellitus. Type 1 diabetes typically presents with acute symptoms due to absolute insulin deficiency, leading to hyperglycemia and ketonuria. Conversely, type 2 diabetes often presents more insidiously and is associated with relative insulin deficiency and insulin resistance. Diabetes insipidus, a condition characterized by excessive thirst and excretion of large amounts of dilute urine, is due to problems with antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and is not associated with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Hyperthyroidism, while also presenting with symptoms like fatigue, does not typically manifest with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Therefore, based on the clinical presentation and laboratory findings, the most likely diagnosis in this case is type 1 diabetes mellitus.

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