Nursing Elites

1. A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) through a central line suddenly develops dyspnea, chest pain, and a drop in blood pressure. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Stop the TPN infusion.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Place the client in Trendelenburg position.
• D. Administer oxygen at 2 liters/minute.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing the client in Trendelenburg position should be the initial action as it can help manage a suspected air embolism, a potential complication of TPN administration. This position helps trap air in the apex of the atrium, reducing the risk of air reaching the pulmonary circulation and causing further harm. Once the client is in a safe position, further actions such as stopping the TPN infusion, notifying the healthcare provider, and administering oxygen can be taken as appropriate.

2. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention to help alleviate severe abdominal pain in a patient with acute pancreatitis?

• A. Encourage oral intake of clear fluids with electrolytes.
• B. Place the patient in a semi-Fowler's position.
• C. Administer prescribed opioid analgesics.
• D. Apply a cold pack to the abdomen.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering prescribed opioid analgesics is the most appropriate nursing intervention to alleviate severe abdominal pain in a patient with acute pancreatitis. Opioid analgesics help manage severe pain effectively in such cases. Encouraging oral intake of clear fluids with electrolytes is contraindicated due to the need for pancreatic rest and potential exacerbation of symptoms. Placing the patient in a semi-Fowler's position helps reduce pressure on the abdomen, unlike a supine position that can worsen the pain. Applying a cold pack is not recommended as it can potentially increase discomfort and vasoconstriction in acute pancreatitis.

3. Aspirin is prescribed for a 9-year-old child with rheumatic fever to control the inflammatory process, promote comfort, and reduce fever. What intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Instruct the parents to hold the aspirin until the child has first had a tepid sponge bath.
• B. Administer the aspirin with at least two ounces of water or juice.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider if the child complains of ringing in the ears.
• D. Advise the parents to question the child about seeing yellow halos around objects.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In children, ringing in the ears (tinnitus) can be a sign of aspirin toxicity. Aspirin toxicity can be particularly concerning in children and can lead to serious complications. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to prioritize monitoring for signs of aspirin toxicity, such as tinnitus, and promptly notify the healthcare provider if such symptoms occur.

4. A 60-year-old man presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
• B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
• C. Diabetes insipidus
• D. Hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The presentation of a 60-year-old man with fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, hyperglycemia, and ketonuria strongly suggests type 1 diabetes mellitus. Type 1 diabetes typically presents with acute symptoms due to absolute insulin deficiency, leading to hyperglycemia and ketonuria. Conversely, type 2 diabetes often presents more insidiously and is associated with relative insulin deficiency and insulin resistance. Diabetes insipidus, a condition characterized by excessive thirst and excretion of large amounts of dilute urine, is due to problems with antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and is not associated with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Hyperthyroidism, while also presenting with symptoms like fatigue, does not typically manifest with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Therefore, based on the clinical presentation and laboratory findings, the most likely diagnosis in this case is type 1 diabetes mellitus.

5. A client with a newly created ileostomy has not had ostomy output for the past 12 hours and reports worsening nausea. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Facilitate a referral to the wound-ostomy-continence (WOC) nurse
• B. Report signs and symptoms of obstruction to the health care provider
• C. Encourage the client to mobilize to enhance mobility
• D. Contact the health care provider to obtain a swab of the stoma for culture

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse's priority action in this situation is to report signs and symptoms of possible obstruction to the healthcare provider. Lack of ostomy output and worsening nausea can indicate a potential obstruction, which requires immediate attention and intervention to prevent complications.

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