Nursing Elites

1. A client is scheduled for a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery. The nurse should prepare the client by reinforcing information about which post-operative care measure?

• A. You will be on bed rest for the first 48 hours after surgery.
• B. You will be encouraged to cough and deep breathe frequently.
• C. You will be discharged within 24 hours if no complications arise.
• D. You will not be able to eat or drink for 24 hours after surgery.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe frequently is essential post-operative care to prevent respiratory complications such as atelectasis and pneumonia after CABG surgery. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because post-CABG surgery, early mobilization is encouraged to prevent complications such as deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pneumonia. Discharge within 24 hours is unlikely after CABG surgery, and early oral intake is encouraged to promote recovery and prevent complications.

2. The client has angina pectoris and is prescribed nitroglycerin patches. What instruction should the nurse provide to the client?

• A. Apply the patch to the chest and leave it in place for 24 hours
• B. Apply the patch to a different site each time to prevent skin irritation
• C. Remove the patch before going to bed to prevent tolerance
• D. Cut the patch in half if experiencing headaches

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to provide to the client is to apply the nitroglycerin patch to a different site each time to prevent skin irritation. Rotating the application site is crucial to prevent skin irritation and ensure consistent absorption of the medication. Applying the patch to the same site can lead to skin irritation and decreased effectiveness. Removing the patch before going to bed is not necessary, as the patch can typically be worn for a specific duration. Cutting the patch in half if experiencing headaches is not recommended and can alter the dose of the medication.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). Which sign of digoxin toxicity should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia due to its effects on the heart's electrical conduction system. Monitoring for a slow heart rate is crucial as it indicates potential toxicity. Hypertension, hyperglycemia, and insomnia are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Hypertension is more commonly seen in other conditions, hyperglycemia is not a typical sign of digoxin toxicity, and insomnia is not a recognized symptom of digoxin toxicity.

4. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which instruction should the nurse give to the client regarding lifestyle changes?

• A. Avoid prolonged sitting or standing.
• B. Use an electric razor to prevent cuts.
• C. Take your medication with a full glass of water.
• D. Eat a diet low in protein.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Using an electric razor is advised to prevent cuts, which is crucial for individuals taking warfarin due to the increased risk of bleeding associated with this medication. Lifestyle changes related to warfarin therapy focus on minimizing the risk of bleeding, and using safety measures such as an electric razor is a practical recommendation to reduce the likelihood of injury. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding prolonged sitting or standing is more related to preventing blood clots than to the bleeding risk of warfarin. Taking warfarin with a full glass of water is not a specific lifestyle change associated with its use. Eating a diet low in protein is not a typical recommendation for individuals on warfarin therapy.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Dry cough
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypokalemia. Hypokalemia is a common electrolyte imbalance associated with furosemide use due to its diuretic effect, which can lead to potassium loss. It is crucial to report hypokalemia promptly to the provider as it can result in serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring and managing potassium levels are essential in patients taking furosemide to prevent adverse effects related to electrolyte imbalances. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect findings to report in a client prescribed furosemide. Weight gain is not typically associated with furosemide use, a dry cough is more commonly linked to ACE inhibitors, and increased appetite is not a common adverse effect of furosemide.

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