Nursing Elites

1. Prior to a cardiac catheterization, what instruction should the client be reminded of?

• A. You will need to be NPO for 6 to 8 hours before the procedure.
• B. You will not be able to move around during the procedure.
• C. You will be required to lie still for several hours after the test.
• D. You will not have to drink any fluids immediately before the test.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Being NPO (nothing by mouth) for 6 to 8 hours before a cardiac catheterization is crucial to prevent complications such as aspiration during the procedure. This helps ensure the safety and accuracy of the test results by minimizing the risk of food or liquid in the stomach interfering with the procedure. Choice B is incorrect because the client will need to lie still during the procedure to ensure its accuracy. Choice C is incorrect as the client is typically required to lie flat for a few hours after the test, not several hours. Choice D is incorrect as the client is usually not allowed to drink fluids immediately before the test to prevent complications.

2. A client who has been taking prednisone is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hyperglycemia is a significant finding in a client taking prednisone as it indicates the medication's impact on glucose metabolism. Prednisone can lead to increased blood sugar levels, which can be detrimental, especially in clients with diabetes or predisposition to hyperglycemia. Reporting hyperglycemia promptly to the healthcare provider is crucial for further evaluation and management to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are common side effects of prednisone but are not as concerning as hyperglycemia, which requires immediate attention to avoid potential adverse effects.

3. The client is receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which lab test should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. International normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. Fibrinogen levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the appropriate lab test to monitor the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin therapy. Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and monitoring aPTT helps ensure the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent clot formation. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor warfarin therapy, a different anticoagulant that affects the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Fibrinogen levels are not specific to monitoring heparin therapy.

4. When educating a client about the use of risedronate to treat osteoporosis, which instruction should be included?

• A. Drink a full glass of water with each dose.
• B. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• C. Remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
• D. Avoid lying down for at least 1 hour after taking the medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking risedronate to treat osteoporosis is to remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication. This is important to prevent esophageal irritation, as risedronate can cause irritation if it remains in contact with the esophagus. By staying upright, the medication is more likely to reach the stomach quickly and reduce the risk of irritation to the esophagus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Drinking a full glass of water is recommended, not milk, to help with swallowing the medication. Risedronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not with meals, to ensure proper absorption. Additionally, avoiding lying down for at least 1 hour after taking the medication helps prevent esophageal irritation.

5. When reinforcing dietary instructions to a client with coronary artery disease prescribed a low-fat, low-cholesterol diet, which food item should the nurse advise the client to choose?

• A. Whole milk
• B. Grilled salmon
• C. Fried chicken
• D. Bacon and eggs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Grilled salmon is the correct choice for a client with coronary artery disease on a low-fat, low-cholesterol diet because it is low in saturated fat and high in omega-3 fatty acids, which are beneficial for heart health. Whole milk, fried chicken, and bacon and eggs are higher in saturated fats and cholesterol, making them less suitable choices for this client. Whole milk is high in saturated fat, while fried chicken and bacon and eggs are sources of both saturated fat and cholesterol, which can negatively impact heart health in clients with coronary artery disease.

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