HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. A client is recovering from a below-the-knee amputation (BKA). The client reports phantom limb pain. What should the nurse include in the client’s care plan to manage this type of pain?
- A. Apply heat to the residual limb.
- B. Administer prescribed analgesics.
- C. Elevate the residual limb.
- D. Perform range-of-motion exercises.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Phantom limb pain is a type of pain that feels like it's coming from a body part that's no longer there. It is essential to understand that phantom limb pain is real and should be managed appropriately. Administering prescribed analgesics is the most effective way to address this discomfort. Applying heat, elevating the residual limb, and performing range-of-motion exercises are not effective in managing phantom limb pain since the pain originates from the brain expecting sensory input from the missing limb, rather than being related to physical factors that heat, elevation, or exercises can address.
2. During the immediate postoperative period following a total hip replacement, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Encourage the client to use a walker or cane when ambulating
- B. Keep the client's hip aligned with knees abducted
- C. Teach the client to sit on the side of the bed before standing
- D. Monitor urinary flow via an indwelling catheter
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Keeping the client's hip aligned with the knees abducted is crucial to prevent dislocation of the prosthesis, which is a priority immediately after total hip replacement surgery. This position helps maintain the stability of the new hip joint. Encouraging the client to use a walker or cane (Choice A) is important but not as critical as ensuring proper hip alignment. Teaching the client to sit on the side of the bed before standing (Choice C) is a good practice but not as essential as maintaining hip alignment. Monitoring urinary flow via an indwelling catheter (Choice D) is not directly related to preventing complications immediately after a total hip replacement.
3. What is the primary function of surfactant in the lungs?
- A. Reduce surface tension
- B. Enhance oxygen absorption
- C. Facilitate carbon dioxide release
- D. Increase lung volume
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The primary function of surfactant in the lungs is to reduce surface tension in the alveoli. This reduction in surface tension prevents lung collapse and allows for easier breathing. It is particularly crucial in premature infants to help with lung expansion. Choice B is incorrect because surfactant primarily affects surface tension, not oxygen absorption. Choice C is incorrect because surfactant's main role is not in facilitating carbon dioxide release. Choice D is incorrect because surfactant does not directly increase lung volume; its main role is in reducing surface tension.
4. What is the primary action a healthcare professional should take when a patient with a suspected myocardial infarction (MI) arrives in the emergency department?
- A. Apply a cold compress to the chest
- B. Administer oxygen and obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG)
- C. Encourage the patient to walk to reduce anxiety
- D. Provide a high-carbohydrate meal
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering oxygen and obtaining an ECG are crucial initial steps when managing a suspected myocardial infarction (MI). Oxygen helps improve oxygenation to the heart muscle, while an ECG is essential to diagnose an MI promptly. Applying a cold compress, encouraging the patient to walk, or providing a high-carbohydrate meal are not appropriate actions in the initial management of a suspected MI. Applying a cold compress can delay necessary interventions, encouraging the patient to walk may worsen the condition, and providing a high-carbohydrate meal is irrelevant to the immediate needs of a patient with a suspected MI.
5. A male client with TB returns to the clinic for daily antibiotic injections for a urinary infection. The client has been taking anti-tubercular medications for 10 weeks and states he has ringing in his ears. Which prescribed medication should the PN report to the HCP?
- A. Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin
- B. Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily
- C. Rifampin 600 mg PO daily
- D. Isoniazid 300 mg PO daily
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily. Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic that can cause ototoxicity, leading to ringing in the ears (tinnitus). This symptom should be reported to the HCP immediately, as it may indicate a need to adjust or discontinue the medication. Choice A, Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin, is not the cause of ototoxicity. Choices C and D, Rifampin and Isoniazid, are anti-tubercular medications but are not associated with causing ringing in the ears.
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