HESI LPN
Leadership and Management HESI Quizlet
1. A client is in DKA, secondary to infection. As the condition progresses, which of the following symptoms might the nurse see?
- A. Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath
- B. Shallow respirations and severe abdominal pain
- C. Decreased respirations and increased urine output
- D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations and foul-smelling urine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), as the condition progresses, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate, leading to Kussmaul's respirations. The accumulation of ketones in the body causes a fruity odor on the breath. Option A is correct because Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath are classic signs of DKA. Option B is incorrect because shallow respirations are not typically seen in DKA, and severe abdominal pain is more commonly associated with conditions like pancreatitis. Option C is incorrect as decreased respirations are not a typical finding in DKA, and increased urine output is more commonly seen in conditions like diabetes insipidus. Option D is incorrect because Cheyne-Stokes respirations are not characteristic of DKA, and foul-smelling urine is not a prominent symptom in this condition.
2. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's laboratory report and notes that the serum calcium level is 4.0 mg/dL. The healthcare professional understands that which condition most likely caused this serum calcium level?
- A. Prolonged bed rest
- B. Renal insufficiency
- C. Hyperparathyroidism
- D. Excessive ingestion of vitamin D
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Prolonged bed rest can lead to hypocalcemia due to decreased mobility and bone resorption. In this scenario, the low serum calcium level of 4.0 mg/dL is likely a result of decreased bone activity and calcium release due to prolonged bed rest. Renal insufficiency would more likely lead to hypercalcemia due to impaired excretion of calcium by the kidneys. Hyperparathyroidism is characterized by increased calcium levels as a result of excess parathyroid hormone. Excessive ingestion of vitamin D can cause hypercalcemia by increasing intestinal absorption of calcium.
3. The nurse is planning care for a patient with acute hypernatremia. What should the nurse include in this patient's plan of care? (select one that does not apply)
- A. Reduce IV access
- B. Limit length of visits
- C. Restrict fluids to 1500 mL per day
- D. Conduct frequent neurologic checks
Correct answer: D
Rationale: For a patient with acute hypernatremia, the nurse should include interventions like reducing free water losses, correcting sodium levels slowly, monitoring neurologic status, and ensuring adequate fluid intake. Conducting frequent neurologic checks is essential in assessing the patient's neurological status and detecting any changes promptly. Therefore, this action should not be excluded from the plan of care. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to managing acute hypernatremia and can be safely excluded from the plan of care. Reducing IV access, limiting length of visits, and restricting fluids to 1500 mL per day are not appropriate actions for managing acute hypernatremia.
4. Which of the following joints normally allows 360-degree circumflexion?
- A. The knee
- B. The shoulder
- C. The elbow
- D. The fingertips
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The shoulder. The shoulder joint is a ball-and-socket joint that allows for a wide range of motion, including 360-degree circumflexion. This joint provides flexibility and mobility in various directions. Choice A, the knee joint, primarily allows flexion and extension but does not have a 360-degree circumflexion. Choice C, the elbow joint, is a hinge joint that permits flexion and extension but not circumflexion. Choice D, the fingertips, do not form a specific joint that allows circumflexion; rather, they have joints that enable bending and straightening movements.
5. Which of the following healthcare providers can legally have access to all, or part, of a patient's medical record because they have a 'need to know'? Select one that does not apply.
- A. Student nurses caring for a particular patient
- B. Registered nurses when they are not caring for a particular patient
- C. The Vice President for nursing who is investigating a patient fall
- D. Licensed practical nurses caring for a particular patient
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Student nurses, licensed practical nurses, the Vice President for nursing investigating a fall, and quality assurance nurses have a 'need to know' basis to access patient records. Registered nurses who are not directly involved in the care of a patient do not have a legitimate reason or 'need to know' to access that patient's medical records, making choice B the correct answer. The Vice President for nursing investigating a specific incident and licensed practical nurses directly involved in a patient's care have legitimate reasons to access the medical records, ensuring continuity and quality of care.
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