HESI LPN
Adult Health Exam 1 Chamberlain
1. During a tonic-clonic seizure, what is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Insert an oral airway
- B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula
- C. Restrain the client's arms and legs
- D. Protect the client's head from injury
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a tonic-clonic seizure, the nurse's priority intervention is to protect the client's head from injury. This is crucial to prevent trauma, as head injuries can be severe during a seizure. Inserting an oral airway may cause injury or obstruction during the seizure and is not recommended. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula can be done after ensuring the client's safety. Restraining the client's arms and legs is also not recommended as it can lead to further injury or harm.
2. A client with a history of pulmonary embolism is on anticoagulant therapy. What should the nurse monitor regularly?
- A. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
- B. Blood glucose levels
- C. Blood pressure
- D. Temperature
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct! Monitoring INR is essential in clients on anticoagulant therapy to ensure the blood's clotting time is within the therapeutic range, preventing further embolic events or excessive bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose levels (Choice B), blood pressure (Choice C), and temperature (Choice D) is important for various other conditions but is not directly related to anticoagulant therapy for a client with a history of pulmonary embolism.
3. A client with a history of seizure disorder who is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin) is being discharged. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Take the medication at bedtime.
- B. Monitor drug levels regularly.
- C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
- D. Take the medication at the same time every day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor drug levels regularly. This is crucial for phenytoin (Dilantin) to ensure that the medication levels are within the therapeutic range and to prevent toxicity. Choice A, taking the medication at bedtime, is not specifically required for phenytoin administration. Choice C, avoiding alcohol, is generally a good practice with medications but is not as critical as monitoring drug levels for phenytoin. Choice D, taking the medication at the same time every day, is important for consistency but does not address the specific monitoring needs of phenytoin.
4. The client with high blood pressure is being taught by the nurse to avoid adding salt during cooking. What effect does sodium have on blood pressure?
- A. It decreases the viscosity of blood
- B. It leads to increased fluid retention
- C. It causes vasoconstriction of the blood vessels
- D. It enhances the excretion of potassium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'It causes vasoconstriction of the blood vessels.' Sodium can lead to vasoconstriction, which narrows the blood vessels, increasing resistance to blood flow and subsequently raising blood pressure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Sodium does not decrease blood viscosity, but it can lead to fluid retention, which increases blood volume and pressure. It does not enhance the excretion of potassium; instead, high sodium intake can lead to potassium excretion by the kidneys.
5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a suspected diagnosis of appendicitis. Which symptom is most indicative of this condition?
- A. Right upper quadrant pain
- B. Nausea and vomiting
- C. Rebound tenderness at McBurney's point
- D. Hematuria
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Rebound tenderness at McBurney's point is a classic sign of appendicitis. This symptom is due to irritation of the peritoneum when pressure is released during palpation. Right upper quadrant pain (Choice A) is more commonly associated with gallbladder issues. Nausea and vomiting (Choice B) can occur in various abdominal conditions and are not specific to appendicitis. Hematuria (Choice D) is the presence of blood in the urine and is not a typical symptom of appendicitis.
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