Nursing Elites

1. During a tonic-clonic seizure, what is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Insert an oral airway
• B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula
• C. Restrain the client's arms and legs
• D. Protect the client's head from injury

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a tonic-clonic seizure, the nurse's priority intervention is to protect the client's head from injury. This is crucial to prevent trauma, as head injuries can be severe during a seizure. Inserting an oral airway may cause injury or obstruction during the seizure and is not recommended. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula can be done after ensuring the client's safety. Restraining the client's arms and legs is also not recommended as it can lead to further injury or harm.

2. The healthcare professional is developing a care plan for a client with depression. What should be included in the plan?

• A. Regular physical activity
• B. Scheduled sleep patterns
• C. Social interaction with family and friends
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A comprehensive care plan for a client with depression should include multiple components to address various aspects of health. Regular physical activity can help improve mood and overall well-being. Scheduled sleep patterns are essential as sleep disturbances are common in depression and can worsen symptoms. Social interaction with family and friends provides emotional support and reduces feelings of isolation. Therefore, including all these aspects in the care plan can help support the client's recovery. Choice D, 'All of the above,' is the correct answer because all the options are important components of a holistic care plan for depression. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these elements plays a crucial role in managing depression.

3. Which client is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers?

• A. A 50-year-old client with a fractured femur
• B. A 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus
• C. A 65-year-old client with limited mobility
• D. A 70-year-old client with a history of stroke

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients with limited mobility are at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers due to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body. This constant pressure can lead to tissue damage and ultimately result in pressure ulcers. While age and medical conditions such as diabetes and a history of stroke can contribute to the risk of pressure ulcers, limited mobility is the most significant factor as it directly affects the ability to shift positions and relieve pressure on vulnerable areas of the body. Therefore, the 65-year-old client with limited mobility is at the highest risk compared to the other clients. The 50-year-old client with a fractured femur may have limited mobility due to the injury, but it is temporary and may not be as prolonged as chronic limited mobility. The 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus and the 70-year-old client with a history of stroke are at risk for developing pressure ulcers, but their conditions do not directly impact their ability to shift positions and alleviate pressure like limited mobility does.

4. The nurse is assessing a newborn and notes that the infant has a yellowish tint to the skin. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Reassure the parents that this is normal
• B. Monitor the infant's bilirubin levels
• C. Increase the frequency of feedings
• D. Administer phototherapy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a newborn presents with a yellowish tint to the skin, it can indicate jaundice, which is caused by elevated bilirubin levels. Monitoring the infant's bilirubin levels is crucial to assess the severity of jaundice and determine the need for further intervention. Reassuring the parents without proper assessment could lead to delayed treatment if jaundice is present. Increasing the frequency of feedings may not address the underlying cause of jaundice. Administering phototherapy is a treatment option that should be based on bilirubin level assessment and healthcare provider's recommendation.

5. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hyperkalemia.
• B. Hyponatremia.
• C. Hypocalcemia.
• D. Hypokalemia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for low potassium levels. Choice A, Hyperkalemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not typically cause high potassium levels. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is incorrect as furosemide primarily affects potassium levels, not sodium. Choice C, Hypocalcemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not directly impact calcium levels.

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