Nursing Elites

1. A client in the emergency department is bleeding profusely from a gunshot wound to the abdomen. In what position should the nurse immediately place the client to promote maintenance of the client's blood pressure above a systolic pressure of 90 mm Hg?

• A. Place the client in a 45-degree Trendelenburg position to promote cerebral blood flow.
• B. Turn the client prone to apply pressure on the abdominal wound to help staunch the bleeding.
• C. Maintain the client in a supine position to reduce diaphragmatic pressure and visualize the wound.
• D. Put the client on the right side to apply pressure to the liver and spleen to stop hemorrhaging.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with profuse bleeding from a gunshot wound to the abdomen, maintaining the client in a supine position is essential to manage blood pressure. This position helps in reducing diaphragmatic pressure and allows for proper visualization of the wound, aiding in prompt assessment and intervention to control the bleeding and stabilize the client's condition. Placing the client in a 45-degree Trendelenburg position (Choice A) could worsen the bleeding by increasing intrathoracic pressure and venous return, potentially leading to further hemorrhage. Turning the client prone (Choice B) may not be feasible in this situation and can delay essential interventions. Placing the client on the right side (Choice D) does not address the immediate need to manage the bleeding and stabilize the client's condition.

2. A client has a history of left-sided heart failure. The nurse should look for the presence of which finding to determine whether the problem is currently active?

• A. Presence of ascites
• B. Bilateral lung crackles
• C. Jugular vein distention
• D. Pedal edema bilaterally

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a client with a history of left-sided heart failure, the presence of bilateral lung crackles is a key finding to determine if the condition is currently active. Crackles in the lungs indicate fluid accumulation, a common sign of left-sided heart failure due to pulmonary congestion. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because ascites, jugular vein distention, and pedal edema are more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure.

3. A client with a diagnosis of angina pectoris returns to the nursing unit after experiencing an angioplasty. The nurse reinforces instructions to the client regarding the procedure and home care measures. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the instructions?

• A. I am considering cutting my workload.
• B. I need to cut down on cigarette smoking.
• C. I am so relieved that my heart is repaired.
• D. I need to adhere to my dietary restrictions.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because adhering to dietary restrictions is crucial in managing heart health post-angioplasty. Choice A focuses on workload, choice B mentions smoking, and choice C reflects relief about heart repair, which are important but do not directly relate to post-angioplasty care instructions.

4. The nurse is preparing to administer an intravenous dose of furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by promoting the excretion of water and electrolytes, including potassium. This loss of potassium can lead to hypokalemia, which can be a potential side effect of furosemide administration. Hypokalemia can result in cardiac dysrhythmias and other complications, especially in clients with heart failure who may already have compromised cardiac function. Therefore, monitoring for signs of hypokalemia, such as muscle weakness, cardiac irregularities, and fatigue, is essential when administering furosemide. Choice A, hypertension, is incorrect because furosemide is actually used to treat hypertension by reducing excess fluid in the body. Choice B, hyperkalemia, is incorrect as furosemide causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Choice D, hypoglycemia, is unrelated to the mechanism of action of furosemide and is not a common side effect associated with its administration.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a unit of packed red blood cells to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Prime the blood tubing with normal saline.
• B. Verify the client’s identity using two identifiers.
• C. Infuse the blood rapidly over 30 minutes.
• D. Obtain the client’s vital signs every 4 hours during the transfusion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verifying the client’s identity using two identifiers is a critical patient safety measure to ensure the correct patient receives the blood transfusion. This process involves checking the patient's identity using at least two unique identifiers, such as name, date of birth, or medical record number, to prevent administration errors. Priming the blood tubing with normal saline is necessary to ensure there are no air bubbles in the tubing, but it is not the immediate action required before administering the blood. Infusing packed red blood cells over 30 minutes is generally too rapid and can lead to adverse reactions; a slower rate is recommended for safe administration. Obtaining vital signs every 4 hours during the transfusion is not frequent enough to monitor the client adequately for potential transfusion reactions or complications; vital signs should be monitored more frequently, especially during the initial phase of the transfusion.

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