Nursing Elites

1. The client is scheduled to undergo a treadmill stress test. Which instruction should the client be reinforced with?

• A. Eat a light meal before the test.
• B. Wear comfortable shoes and clothing.
• C. Avoid all physical activity the morning of the test.
• D. Take prescribed medications right before the test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Wear comfortable shoes and clothing.' Wearing comfortable shoes and clothing is crucial for the client undergoing a treadmill stress test to ensure they can complete the test without discomfort. The right attire will help the client move freely and reduce the risk of any hindrance during the test, which requires physical activity. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A light meal before the test may be recommended, but it's not as crucial as wearing suitable attire. Avoiding physical activity the morning of the test is not necessary as the test requires physical activity. Taking prescribed medications right before the test instructions should be followed as per the healthcare provider's advice and not as a general rule for all clients undergoing the test.

2. A client with a history of heart failure is prescribed metoprolol (Lopressor). The nurse should monitor the client for which common side effect of this medication?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Metoprolol is a beta-blocker commonly used in heart failure to reduce blood pressure. One of the common side effects of metoprolol is hypotension, which can lead to dizziness, lightheadedness, and even fainting. Therefore, monitoring for hypotension is essential to prevent adverse effects and ensure patient safety. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Tachycardia is not a common side effect of metoprolol, as it actually reduces heart rate. Hypertension is also not a common side effect of this medication, as it is intended to lower blood pressure. Hyperglycemia is not a typical side effect of metoprolol.

3. A client has a new prescription for amlodipine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Monitor blood pressure daily.
• C. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor blood pressure daily.' When a client is prescribed amlodipine, it is essential to monitor their blood pressure regularly. Amlodipine is known to cause hypotension, so monitoring blood pressure helps ensure it stays within the desired range to prevent complications associated with low blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect because amlodipine can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as increasing potassium intake is not a specific instruction related to amlodipine. Choice D is incorrect as grapefruit juice interactions are not typically a concern with amlodipine.

4. The client is receiving anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy in clients with atrial fibrillation. These tests help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and are commonly used to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Monitoring PT and INR levels allows healthcare providers to adjust anticoagulant dosages as needed to prevent complications such as bleeding or thrombosis. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not a direct indicator of anticoagulant therapy effectiveness. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a nonspecific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor anticoagulant therapy.

5. The healthcare provider is preparing to assist in the care of a client who has just returned from coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery. Which is the priority action?

• A. Monitor the client's urine output.
• B. Check the client's surgical dressing.
• C. Measure the client's blood pressure.
• D. Assess the client's level of consciousness.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assessing the client's level of consciousness is the priority action post-CABG surgery to monitor for signs of cerebral hypoxia or other complications that require immediate intervention. Changes in the client's level of consciousness can indicate neurological deterioration, which is critical to address promptly in this postoperative period. Monitoring urine output, checking surgical dressing, and measuring blood pressure are important aspects of postoperative care but assessing the client's level of consciousness takes precedence as it provides crucial information about the client's neurological status and the need for urgent intervention.

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