Nursing Elites

1. The client is scheduled to undergo a treadmill stress test. Which instruction should the client be reinforced with?

• A. Eat a light meal before the test.
• B. Wear comfortable shoes and clothing.
• C. Avoid all physical activity the morning of the test.
• D. Take prescribed medications right before the test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Wear comfortable shoes and clothing.' Wearing comfortable shoes and clothing is crucial for the client undergoing a treadmill stress test to ensure they can complete the test without discomfort. The right attire will help the client move freely and reduce the risk of any hindrance during the test, which requires physical activity. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A light meal before the test may be recommended, but it's not as crucial as wearing suitable attire. Avoiding physical activity the morning of the test is not necessary as the test requires physical activity. Taking prescribed medications right before the test instructions should be followed as per the healthcare provider's advice and not as a general rule for all clients undergoing the test.

2. A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Store the medication in a cool, dark place.
• B. Take the medication at bedtime.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Take the medication at the first sign of chest pain.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the discharge teaching for a client with a new prescription for nitroglycerin is to take the medication at the first sign of chest pain. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that helps relax blood vessels, increasing blood flow to the heart muscle and reducing the workload of the heart. Taking it at the onset of chest pain helps alleviate angina symptoms quickly and effectively. Storing the medication in a cool, dark place (Choice A) is not a critical instruction for this medication. Taking the medication at bedtime (Choice B) or on an empty stomach (Choice C) is not relevant to the administration of nitroglycerin for angina relief.

3. A client is admitted to the emergency department with a suspected myocardial infarction (MI). The nurse should prepare the client for which immediate diagnostic test?

• A. Chest x-ray
• B. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
• C. Echocardiogram
• D. Coronary angiography

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An Electrocardiogram (ECG) is the most immediate and essential test to diagnose a myocardial infarction (MI) and assess the extent of heart damage. An ECG can quickly identify changes in the heart's electrical activity, allowing prompt initiation of appropriate interventions. A chest x-ray (Choice A) may show other conditions affecting the heart, but it is not the immediate test of choice for diagnosing an MI. An echocardiogram (Choice C) and coronary angiography (Choice D) are valuable in further assessing cardiac function and anatomy post-MI but are not the first-line diagnostic tests due to their time-consuming nature compared to an ECG.

4. The nurse is caring for a client who has returned to the unit after undergoing a cardiac catheterization. The nurse should monitor for which common complication following this procedure?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypotension
• C. Hemorrhage
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Following a cardiac catheterization, a common complication to monitor for is bleeding or hemorrhage at the catheter insertion site. Hemorrhage is a significant concern due to the potential for rapid blood loss, leading to hypovolemic shock and other serious complications. Monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as swelling, hematoma, or drop in hemoglobin levels, is crucial for timely intervention. Hypertension is not a common complication post-cardiac catheterization; instead, hypotension may occur due to vasovagal response or bleeding. Hyperglycemia is not typically associated with cardiac catheterization unless the client has pre-existing diabetes or stress-induced hyperglycemia.

5. The client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial when a client is on warfarin therapy. These tests assess the clotting ability of the blood and help determine the appropriate dosage of warfarin to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting events. PT and INR values within the therapeutic range indicate the effectiveness of warfarin in managing atrial fibrillation. Choice B, activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it is more commonly used to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Choice C, complete blood count (CBC), does not directly assess the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Choice D, fibrinogen level, is not a primary test for monitoring warfarin therapy; it is more relevant in assessing conditions like disseminated intravascular coagulation.

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