Nursing Elites

1. A 6-year-old child with asthma is admitted to the hospital with an acute exacerbation. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Administering a bronchodilator
• B. Administering an antihistamine
• C. Administering a corticosteroid
• D. Administering oxygen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator is the priority intervention for a child experiencing an acute asthma exacerbation. Bronchodilators help to dilate the airways, making breathing easier and relieving acute symptoms of asthma. Antihistamines are not the first-line treatment for asthma exacerbations; they are more commonly used for allergic reactions. Corticosteroids are beneficial in reducing inflammation in asthma but are usually administered after bronchodilators to provide long-term control. Oxygen therapy may be necessary in severe cases of asthma exacerbation, but bronchodilators take precedence in improving airway patency and respiratory distress.

2. A 12-month-old infant has become immunosuppressed during a course of chemotherapy. When preparing the parents for the infant’s discharge, what information should the nurse give concerning the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) immunization?

• A. It should not be given until the infant reaches 2 years of age.
• B. Infants who are receiving chemotherapy should not be given these vaccines.
• C. It should be given to protect the infant from contracting any of these diseases.
• D. The parents should discuss this with their health care provider at the next visit.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Live vaccines like MMR should not be given to immunosuppressed infants because their weakened immune systems may not handle the vaccine safely. Choice A is incorrect as delaying the MMR vaccine until the infant reaches 2 years of age does not address the issue of immunosuppression. Choice C is incorrect because administering live vaccines to an immunosuppressed individual could lead to serious complications. Choice D is incorrect as immediate action is required to prevent potential harm to the immunosuppressed infant.

3. A 4-year-old child is admitted with a diagnosis of bacterial pneumonia. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Administering antipyretics
• B. Administering antibiotics
• C. Monitoring fluid intake
• D. Providing nutritional support

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention in a 4-year-old child admitted with bacterial pneumonia is administering antibiotics. Antibiotics are crucial for treating the infection and preventing potential complications. Administering antipyretics (Choice A) may help reduce fever, but addressing the underlying infection with antibiotics is the priority. Monitoring fluid intake (Choice C) is important for hydration but does not take precedence over administering antibiotics. Providing nutritional support (Choice D) is essential for overall care but is not the immediate priority when managing bacterial pneumonia.

4. When teaching a class about trisomy 21, the instructor would identify the cause of this disorder as:

• A. nondisjunction.
• B. X-linked recessive inheritance.
• C. genomic imprinting.
• D. autosomal dominant inheritance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: nondisjunction. Trisomy 21, also known as Down syndrome, is caused by nondisjunction, which is an error in cell division leading to an extra copy of chromosome 21. This additional genetic material alters the course of development and causes the characteristics associated with Down syndrome. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. X-linked recessive inheritance refers to genetic disorders carried on the X chromosome, genomic imprinting involves gene expression based on parental origin, and autosomal dominant inheritance relates to disorders caused by a dominant gene on one of the non-sex chromosomes. In the case of trisomy 21, the cause is specifically related to the error in chromosome division, making nondisjunction the most appropriate answer.

5. Which cardiac defects are associated with tetralogy of Fallot?

• A. Right ventricular hypertrophy, atrial and ventricular defects, and mitral valve stenosis
• B. Origin of the aorta from the right ventricle and of the pulmonary artery from the left ventricle
• C. Right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, pulmonic stenosis, and overriding aorta
• D. Altered connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and an atrial septal defect

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tetralogy of Fallot is characterized by a combination of four specific cardiac defects: right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, pulmonic stenosis, and overriding aorta. Choice A is incorrect as it includes mitral valve stenosis, which is not typically part of tetralogy of Fallot. Choice B describes transposition of the great arteries rather than tetralogy of Fallot. Choice D includes an atrial septal defect, which is not part of the classic presentation of tetralogy of Fallot.

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