ATI LPN
LPN Pediatrics
1. You are treating a 5-year-old child who has had severe diarrhea and vomiting for 3 days and is now showing signs of shock. Supplemental oxygen has been given, and you have elevated his lower extremities. En route to the hospital, you note that his work of breathing has increased. You should:
- A. begin positive-pressure ventilations and reassess the child.
- B. lower the extremities and reassess the child.
- C. listen to the lungs with a stethoscope for abnormal breath sounds.
- D. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and increase the oxygen flow.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When the work of breathing increases after elevating the legs, it is important to lower the extremities. Elevating the lower extremities in a child with signs of shock can worsen the condition by reducing venous return to the heart. Lowering the extremities can help improve venous return and potentially alleviate the increased work of breathing.
2. Alice is rushed to the emergency department during an acute, severe prolonged asthma attack and is unresponsive to usual treatment. The condition is referred to as which of the following?
- A. Status asthmaticus
- B. Reactive airway disease
- C. Intrinsic asthma
- D. Extrinsic asthma
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Status asthmaticus is a life-threatening condition characterized by a severe and prolonged asthma attack that does not respond to standard treatments. It requires immediate medical intervention to prevent respiratory failure and potential fatality. Reactive airway disease, intrinsic asthma, and extrinsic asthma do not specifically denote the severity and unresponsiveness to treatment seen in status asthmaticus.
3. What is the appropriate treatment for a responsive 4-year-old child with a mild airway obstruction, respiratory distress, a strong cough, and normal skin color?
- A. Oxygen, back slaps, and transport.
- B. Subdiaphragmatic thrusts until the object is expelled.
- C. Assisted ventilations, back slaps, and transport.
- D. Supplemental oxygen and transport.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: For a responsive 4-year-old child with a mild airway obstruction, respiratory distress, a strong cough, and normal skin color, the appropriate treatment includes providing supplemental oxygen and arranging for transport to a healthcare facility. Oxygen helps alleviate the respiratory distress, and transport ensures the child receives further evaluation and care by healthcare professionals. Back slaps and subdiaphragmatic thrusts are not recommended for a child with a mild airway obstruction and normal skin color, as these interventions are typically reserved for more severe cases of airway obstruction.
4. The nurse is using the New Ballard Score to assess the gestational age of a newborn delivered 4 hours ago. The infant's gestational age is 33 weeks based on early ultrasound and last menstrual period. The nurse expects the infant to exhibit which of the following?
- A. Full sole creases, nails extending beyond the fingertips, scarf sign showing the elbow beyond the midline
- B. Testes located in the upper scrotum, rugae covering the scrotum, vernix covering the entire body
- C. Ear cartilage folded over, lanugo present over much of the body, slow recoil time
- D. 1 cm breast bud, peeling skin and veins not visible, rapid recoil of legs and arms to extension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Ear cartilage folded over, lanugo present over much of the body, and slow recoil time are all characteristics of a preterm infant. A is incorrect because full sole creases, nails extending beyond the fingertips, and scarf sign showing the elbow beyond the midline are features of a term infant. B is incorrect as testes located in the upper scrotum, rugae covering the scrotum, and vernix covering the entire body are also indicative of a term infant. D is incorrect because a 1 cm breast bud, peeling skin and veins not visible, and rapid recoil of legs and arms to extension are characteristics seen in a more mature infant, not a preterm newborn.
5. In the treatment of an infected hematoma, which of the following is NOT recommended?
- A. Incision and drainage
- B. Systemic antibiotics
- C. A and B
- D. Vitamin E
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Vitamin E is not a standard treatment for infected hematomas. The primary interventions for infected hematomas typically involve incision and drainage to remove infected fluid and debris, along with the administration of systemic antibiotics to combat the infection. Vitamin E does not play a significant role in the treatment of infected hematomas and is therefore not recommended as a primary treatment option. Choice A (Incision and drainage) and Choice B (Systemic antibiotics) are recommended treatments for infected hematomas as they help in removing infected fluid and combating the infection, respectively. Therefore, the correct answer is D, Vitamin E.
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