Nursing Elites

1. What is the appropriate treatment for a responsive 4-year-old child with a mild airway obstruction, respiratory distress, a strong cough, and normal skin color?

• A. Oxygen, back slaps, and transport.
• B. Subdiaphragmatic thrusts until the object is expelled.
• C. Assisted ventilations, back slaps, and transport.
• D. Supplemental oxygen and transport.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For a responsive 4-year-old child with a mild airway obstruction, respiratory distress, a strong cough, and normal skin color, the appropriate treatment includes providing supplemental oxygen and arranging for transport to a healthcare facility. Oxygen helps alleviate the respiratory distress, and transport ensures the child receives further evaluation and care by healthcare professionals. Back slaps and subdiaphragmatic thrusts are not recommended for a child with a mild airway obstruction and normal skin color, as these interventions are typically reserved for more severe cases of airway obstruction.

2. A child is being admitted to the hospital for probable pneumonia. The nurse asks what the parents have done at home for this illness. The parent comments that they have given the child a tea made up of herbs that a neighbor recommended. The parents ask if that is a safe thing to do. The most appropriate response for the nurse is:

• A. Sure, if it doesn't make the child worse, it could help.
• B. Of course, teas are rarely harmful.
• C. It might be safe for adults, but research might not have been conducted on the effects on children.
• D. Absolutely not, herbal teas are not appropriate for children.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate response is C: 'It might be safe for adults, but research might not have been conducted on the effects on children.' This response acknowledges the potential differences in the effects of herbal teas on adults versus children and highlights the importance of considering the lack of specific research on this topic when it comes to pediatric care. Choice A is incorrect because assuming something is safe without evidence can be risky in a pediatric setting. Choice B is also incorrect as it oversimplifies the safety of herbal teas. Choice D is too definitive and does not consider the possibility that herbal teas might have different effects on children than on adults.

3. The student nurse has performed a gestational age assessment of an infant and finds the infant to be at 32 weeks. On which set of characteristics is the nurse basing this assessment?

• A. Lanugo mostly gone, little vernix remaining on the body
• B. Prominent clitoris, enlarging labia minora, patent anus
• C. Full areola, 5 to 10 mm nipple bud, pinkish-brown areola
• D. Skin opaque, cracking at wrists and ankles, no visible vessels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. At 30 to 32 weeks' gestation, the clitoris is prominent, and the labia minora are enlarging. The labia majora are small and widely separated. As gestational age increases, the labia majora increase in size. At 36 to 40 weeks, they almost cover the clitoris. At 40 weeks and beyond, the labia majora cover the labia minora and clitoris. Choices A, C, and D do not align with the characteristic features seen at 32 weeks of gestation, making them incorrect.

4. A 7-year-old child has an altered mental status, high fever, and a generalized rash. You perform your assessment and administer supplemental oxygen. En route to the hospital, you should be MOST alert for:

• A. hypotension.
• B. combativeness.
• C. convulsions.
• D. respiratory distress.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a 7-year-old child with altered mental status, high fever, and a generalized rash, the most critical concern is the potential for convulsions. These symptoms could indicate a serious underlying condition, such as a febrile seizure or another type of seizure activity. Monitoring for convulsions is crucial during transport to ensure prompt intervention if they occur, as seizures can lead to additional complications and require immediate management.

5. A postpartum client is experiencing heavy lochia and a boggy uterus. What should be the nurse's initial action?

• A. Administer a uterotonic medication
• B. Encourage the client to void
• C. Perform fundal massage
• D. Increase the client's fluid intake

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct initial action for a postpartum client experiencing heavy lochia and a boggy uterus is to perform fundal massage. Fundal massage helps to firm the uterus and reduce bleeding by promoting uterine contractions, which can assist in preventing postpartum hemorrhage. Administering uterotonic medication may be necessary in some cases but should not be the initial action. Encouraging the client to void and increasing fluid intake can be important interventions but are not the priority in this situation where immediate uterine firmness is needed to control bleeding.

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