Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is an example of a mood stabilizer used to treat bipolar disorder?

• A. Fluoxetine
• B. Lithium
• C. Haloperidol
• D. Lorazepam

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lithium is a widely recognized mood stabilizer used in the treatment of bipolar disorder. It helps to control mood swings, prevent manic episodes, and reduce the risk of suicidal behavior in individuals with bipolar disorder. Fluoxetine is an antidepressant, Haloperidol is an antipsychotic, and Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and insomnia, none of which are primary mood stabilizers for bipolar disorder.

2. What is a priority intervention for a patient with severe anxiety?

• A. Encouraging the patient to discuss their feelings in detail.
• B. Providing a calm and quiet environment.
• C. Encouraging the patient to participate in group activities.
• D. Providing detailed information about their treatment plan.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When dealing with a patient experiencing severe anxiety, providing a calm and quiet environment is a priority intervention. This approach helps reduce stimuli and anxiety levels, creating a more soothing atmosphere for the individual. Encouraging the patient to discuss their feelings in detail or participate in group activities may be beneficial in certain situations, but establishing a peaceful setting takes precedence when managing severe anxiety. Providing detailed information about their treatment plan, although important, may not be the immediate priority when the patient is in a state of severe anxiety and needs a calming environment first.

3. When working with a patient diagnosed with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which therapeutic approach is most appropriate?

• A. Encouraging the patient to avoid discussing the traumatic event.
• B. Using exposure therapy to help the patient confront their fears.
• C. Advising the patient to focus on positive thoughts.
• D. Suggesting that the patient keep busy to distract from traumatic memories.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Exposure therapy is an evidence-based treatment for PTSD that involves gradually exposing the patient to their traumatic memories in a safe and controlled environment. This approach helps individuals confront and process their fears, reducing the impact of the traumatic event over time. Avoiding discussing the trauma (choice A) may lead to avoidance behaviors and hinder recovery. Focusing on positive thoughts (choice C) may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying trauma. Keeping busy to distract from memories (choice D) is a form of avoidance that does not help in processing the traumatic experiences. Therefore, using exposure therapy (choice B) is the most appropriate approach to effectively treat PTSD.

4. A patient diagnosed with dissociative identity disorder has been undergoing therapy for several months. Which outcome indicates that the patient is progressing in therapy?

• A. The patient has developed a strong therapeutic relationship with the therapist.
• B. The patient’s different personalities are beginning to merge.
• C. The patient is able to recall traumatic events without dissociating.
• D. The patient reports fewer gaps in memory.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In dissociative identity disorder, the merging of different personalities is a crucial indicator of progress in therapy. As the different identities merge, it signifies that the patient is integrating fragmented aspects of their self, leading to a more cohesive sense of identity and a reduction in dissociative symptoms. This process is a significant therapeutic milestone in the treatment of dissociative identity disorder as it promotes internal cohesion and decreases internal conflict. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while developing a strong therapeutic relationship, recalling traumatic events without dissociating, and reporting fewer gaps in memory are important aspects of therapy, the merging of different personalities is specifically indicative of substantial progress in treating dissociative identity disorder.

5. When assessing a patient with major depressive disorder, which of the following is a common cognitive symptom?

• A. Hallucinations
• B. Delusions
• C. Lack of appetite
• D. Negative self-talk

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Negative self-talk is a common cognitive symptom of major depressive disorder. It involves a pattern of negative thoughts and beliefs about oneself, which can significantly impact a patient's self-esteem and overall outlook on life. Hallucinations and delusions are more commonly associated with other mental health conditions like schizophrenia, while lack of appetite is typically considered a physical symptom of depression rather than a cognitive one.

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