Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following findings should the nurse anticipate in the medical record of a client with a pressure ulcer?

• A. Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL
• B. Braden scale score of 20
• C. Norton scale score of 18
• D. Hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL. A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL indicates poor nutrition, which is commonly seen in clients with pressure ulcers. Choice B, a Braden scale score of 20, is incorrect because a higher Braden scale score indicates a lower risk of developing pressure ulcers. Choice C, a Norton scale score of 18, is incorrect as it is a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer. Choice D, a hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL, is unrelated to pressure ulcers and does not directly reflect the nutritional status associated with this condition.

2. How do you assess for dehydration in a pediatric patient?

• A. Check for dry mouth and decreased urine output
• B. Monitor skin turgor and capillary refill
• C. Assess for lethargy and irritability
• D. Monitor blood pressure and heart rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! When assessing for dehydration in a pediatric patient, checking for dry mouth and decreased urine output are crucial indicators. Dry mouth indicates reduced fluid intake or dehydration, while decreased urine output suggests decreased renal perfusion secondary to dehydration. Skin turgor and capillary refill are more indicative of perfusion status rather than dehydration specifically. Lethargy and irritability can be present in dehydrated patients but are more general signs of illness. Monitoring blood pressure and heart rate are important in assessing dehydration severity but are not the initial signs used for assessment.

3. What are the differences between Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes in terms of treatment?

• A. Type 1: Insulin therapy; Type 2: Lifestyle modifications and oral agents
• B. Type 1: Oral agents; Type 2: Insulin therapy
• C. Type 1: Insulin resistance; Type 2: Insulin deficiency
• D. Type 1: Exercise and diet; Type 2: Insulin only

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because Type 1 diabetes necessitates insulin therapy, whereas Type 2 diabetes is managed with lifestyle modifications and oral agents. Choice B is incorrect because Type 1 diabetes does not use oral agents as a primary treatment. Choice C is incorrect as it describes the pathophysiology of diabetes types rather than their treatments. Choice D is incorrect because Type 2 diabetes management involves more than just insulin and includes lifestyle changes and oral medications.

4. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with potential pneumonia?

• A. Assess lung sounds and monitor oxygen saturation
• B. Monitor for fever and sputum production
• C. Auscultate heart sounds and check for cyanosis
• D. Monitor for chest pain and administer oxygen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correctly assessing a patient with potential pneumonia involves listening to lung sounds and monitoring oxygen saturation. Lung sounds can reveal abnormal breath sounds associated with pneumonia, such as crackles or diminished breath sounds. Oxygen saturation monitoring helps in detecting respiratory distress, a common complication of pneumonia. Monitoring for fever and sputum production (Choice B) is important but not as specific as assessing lung sounds and oxygen saturation. Auscultating heart sounds and checking for cyanosis (Choice C) are not primary assessments for pneumonia. Monitoring for chest pain and administering oxygen (Choice D) are relevant interventions but do not address the initial assessment of pneumonia.

5. A client is reinforcing teaching with a nurse about how to use an incentive spirometer. Which of the following actions by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. The client exhales deeply before inhaling
• B. The client attempts to elevate the cylinder by inhaling deeply
• C. The client inhales quickly through the spirometer
• D. The client inhales several short breaths

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because inhaling deeply and slowly elevates the cylinder on the spirometer, promoting lung expansion. Choice A is incorrect as exhaling deeply before inhaling is not the correct technique for using an incentive spirometer. Choice C is incorrect as inhaling quickly through the spirometer does not promote optimal lung expansion. Choice D is incorrect as inhaling several short breaths does not facilitate the proper use of an incentive spirometer.

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