which intervention is key when managing a client with delirium
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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet

1. What intervention is key when managing a client with delirium?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention when managing a client with delirium is to identify any reversible causes. Delirium can be caused by various factors such as infections, medications, dehydration, or metabolic imbalances. Administering antipsychotic medications (Choice A) may worsen delirium and should be avoided unless necessary for specific indications. Providing a low-stimulation environment (Choice C) is beneficial as it can help reduce agitation and confusion in individuals with delirium. Increasing environmental stimulation (Choice D) is contraindicated as it can exacerbate symptoms in delirious patients. Therefore, the priority should be on identifying and addressing reversible causes to effectively manage delirium.

2. A client has a prescription for ranitidine 150 mg PO BID. Available is ranitidine syrup 15 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer each day?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To administer a total of 300 mg daily (150 mg PO BID), the nurse should give 20 mL of the syrup. This is calculated by dividing the total daily dose (300 mg) by the concentration of the syrup (15 mg/mL), which equals 20 mL. Choice B (15 mL), C (25 mL), and D (10 mL) are incorrect because they do not accurately calculate the required volume of syrup needed to deliver the prescribed dose.

3. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with chest pain?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a patient with chest pain, the initial step is to assess the severity of pain and monitor the electrocardiogram (ECG) to look for signs of cardiac issues. Administering nitroglycerin and oxygen (Choice B) is a treatment option for suspected cardiac chest pain but should not precede a thorough assessment. Administering aspirin and providing pain relief (Choice C) may be indicated later, but the priority is to assess the situation first. Monitoring for nausea and administering IV fluids (Choice D) is not the initial assessment for chest pain unless there are specific indications present.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube following a thoracotomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak, which should be reported to the provider. This finding suggests that the chest tube system is not functioning properly, leading to potential complications such as pneumothorax. Drainage of 75 mL in the first hour after surgery is within the expected range for a chest tube. Tidaling in the water seal chamber is a normal fluctuation and indicates proper functioning of the system. Client report of pain at the chest tube insertion site is expected after surgery and can be managed with appropriate pain management measures.

5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is undergoing screening for prostate cancer. The nurse should expect an elevation in which of the following laboratory values?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prostate-specific antigen (PSA). PSA is a marker specifically used for prostate cancer screening. Elevated levels of PSA can indicate prostate cancer or other prostate-related issues, prompting the need for further diagnostic investigations. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with prostate cancer screening. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is related to pregnancy, alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is associated with liver and germ cell tumors, and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is linked to colorectal cancer.

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