ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020
1. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client with dementia. Which of the following findings should the nurse address first?
- A. Restlessness and agitation
- B. Decreased respiratory rate
- C. Wandering during the night
- D. Incontinence
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with dementia, addressing restlessness and agitation is a priority because these symptoms can exacerbate dementia and lead to further complications. Restlessness and agitation can indicate underlying issues such as pain, discomfort, or unmet needs, which should be promptly assessed and managed to improve the client's quality of life. Decreased respiratory rate, wandering during the night, and incontinence are important to address but do not pose immediate risks to the client's well-being compared to the potential effects of unmanaged restlessness and agitation in dementia.
2. The nurse is performing triage on a group of clients in the emergency department. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?
- A. A 12-year-old oozing blood from a laceration on the left thumb due to a cut from a rusty metal can
- B. A 19-year-old with a fever of 103.8°F who is able to identify her sister but not the place and time
- C. A 49-year-old with a compound fracture of the right leg who is complaining of severe pain
- D. A 65-year-old with a flushed face, dry mucous membranes, and a blood sugar of 470 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A 19-year-old with a fever of 103.8°F who is confused and unable to orient to place and time likely has a severe infection or a serious medical condition affecting the central nervous system. This client needs immediate attention as altered mental status combined with a high fever can indicate a life-threatening situation. Choices A, C, and D present important conditions that require medical care, but they are not as urgent as the 19-year-old with a high fever and confusion. The 12-year-old with a laceration may require treatment for bleeding and a tetanus shot, the 49-year-old with a compound fracture needs urgent orthopedic intervention, and the 65-year-old with a high blood sugar is concerning for hyperglycemia but can wait momentarily compared to the client with a fever and altered mental status.
3. A client is given morphine 6 mg IV push for postoperative pain. Following administration of this drug, the nurse observes the following: pulse 68, respirations 8, BP 100/68, client sleeping quietly. Which of the following nursing actions is MOST appropriate?
- A. Allow the client to sleep undisturbed
- B. Administer oxygen via facemask or nasal prongs
- C. Administer naloxone (Narcan)
- D. Place epinephrine 1:1,000 at the bedside
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer naloxone (Narcan). The client's vital signs indicate opioid-induced respiratory depression, which is a potential side effect of morphine. Naloxone is used to reverse the effects of opioids, particularly to restore normal respiratory function. Administering oxygen alone (Choice B) may not address the underlying cause of respiratory depression. Allowing the client to sleep undisturbed (Choice A) is inappropriate when signs of respiratory depression are present. Epinephrine (Choice D) is not indicated in this situation and is not used to reverse opioid effects.
4. A client is to start taking furosemide and is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend to the client?
- A. Cabbage
- B. Bananas
- C. Carrots
- D. Potatoes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bananas. Bananas are high in potassium, which helps counter the potassium-depleting effects of furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, so including potassium-rich foods like bananas in the diet can help maintain a healthy potassium level. Choices A, C, and D do not specifically address the potassium needs associated with furosemide therapy and are not the most appropriate recommendations in this context.
5. How should a healthcare provider assess a patient for fluid overload?
- A. Monitor weight and assess for shortness of breath
- B. Auscultate lung sounds and monitor blood pressure
- C. Assess for edema in the extremities
- D. Assess for jugular venous distension
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correctly, the answer is to monitor weight and assess for shortness of breath when assessing a patient for fluid overload. Weight monitoring is crucial as sudden weight gain can indicate fluid retention. Shortness of breath can be a sign of fluid accumulation in the lungs. While auscultating lung sounds and monitoring blood pressure are important assessments in overall patient care, they may not be specific to fluid overload. Assessing for edema in the extremities is relevant, but it is not as sensitive as monitoring weight for detecting fluid overload. Assessing for jugular venous distension is more specific to assessing fluid status in heart failure rather than a general assessment for fluid overload.
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