Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client with dementia. Which of the following findings should the nurse address first?

• A. Restlessness and agitation
• B. Decreased respiratory rate
• C. Wandering during the night
• D. Incontinence

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with dementia, addressing restlessness and agitation is a priority because these symptoms can exacerbate dementia and lead to further complications. Restlessness and agitation can indicate underlying issues such as pain, discomfort, or unmet needs, which should be promptly assessed and managed to improve the client's quality of life. Decreased respiratory rate, wandering during the night, and incontinence are important to address but do not pose immediate risks to the client's well-being compared to the potential effects of unmanaged restlessness and agitation in dementia.

2. A client is receiving IV fluids and has developed phlebitis. What is the next step the nurse should take?

• A. Monitor the site for further swelling
• B. Remove the catheter and place it in another site
• C. Reduce the flow rate of IV fluids
• D. Switch to oral hydration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct next step when a client develops phlebitis while receiving IV fluids is to remove the catheter and place it in another site. Phlebitis is inflammation of a vein, and leaving the catheter in the same site can lead to further complications. Monitoring the site for further swelling, as in choice A, is not enough as the source of inflammation needs to be removed. Choice C, reducing the flow rate, may not address the underlying issue causing phlebitis. Switching to oral hydration, as in choice D, is not necessary for addressing phlebitis related to IV fluid administration.

3. A healthcare professional is assisting with the admission of a client who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional expect the provider to prescribe for the client?

• A. Haloperidol
• B. Disulfiram
• C. Chlordiazepoxide
• D. Phenobarbital

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Chlordiazepoxide is a benzodiazepine commonly used to manage anxiety and prevent seizures during alcohol withdrawal. Haloperidol (Choice A) is an antipsychotic medication and is not typically used for alcohol withdrawal. Disulfiram (Choice B) is used in the treatment of alcohol use disorder but is not indicated for alcohol withdrawal. Phenobarbital (Choice D) may be used for alcohol withdrawal seizures but is not the first-line medication for managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms.

4. A nurse is teaching a client who has ulcerative colitis about dietary recommendations. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid high-fiber foods
• B. Increase intake of spicy foods
• C. Consume foods high in fiber
• D. Eat large, infrequent meals

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Consume foods high in fiber.' Consuming high-fiber foods helps manage symptoms of ulcerative colitis by promoting regular bowel movements. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Avoiding high-fiber foods can worsen symptoms as fiber is beneficial for digestive health. Increasing the intake of spicy foods can exacerbate inflammation in the digestive tract, leading to more discomfort. Eating large, infrequent meals can put more strain on the digestive system, which is not ideal for managing ulcerative colitis.

5. In the emergency department, a nurse is performing triage for multiple clients following a disaster in the community. To which of the following types of injuries should the nurse assign the highest priority?

• A. Below-the-knee amputation.
• B. 10 cm (4 in) laceration.
• C. Fractured tibia.
• D. 95% full-thickness body burn.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A below-the-knee amputation requires immediate attention due to the risk of hemorrhage and shock, making it the highest priority. This type of injury can lead to significant blood loss and impaired perfusion, which can be life-threatening if not addressed promptly. While a 10 cm laceration, a fractured tibia, and a 95% full-thickness body burn are serious injuries requiring urgent care, they do not pose the same immediate threat to life as a below-the-knee amputation. The laceration may require suturing to control bleeding and prevent infection, the fractured tibia needs stabilization to prevent further damage and pain, and the burn necessitates immediate management to prevent complications, but they are not as acutely life-threatening as the amputation.

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