Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client with dementia. Which of the following findings should the nurse address first?

• A. Restlessness and agitation
• B. Decreased respiratory rate
• C. Wandering during the night
• D. Incontinence

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with dementia, addressing restlessness and agitation is a priority because these symptoms can exacerbate dementia and lead to further complications. Restlessness and agitation can indicate underlying issues such as pain, discomfort, or unmet needs, which should be promptly assessed and managed to improve the client's quality of life. Decreased respiratory rate, wandering during the night, and incontinence are important to address but do not pose immediate risks to the client's well-being compared to the potential effects of unmanaged restlessness and agitation in dementia.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Administer oxygen at 2L/min via nasal cannula
• B. Encourage pursed-lip breathing
• C. Position the client in high Fowler's position
• D. Encourage deep breathing and coughing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with COPD is to encourage pursed-lip breathing. Pursed-lip breathing helps improve oxygenation by preventing airway collapse, slowing down the breathing rate, and promoting better gas exchange. Administering oxygen at 2L/min via nasal cannula is not the first-line intervention as it can cause oxygen toxicity in COPD patients. Positioning the client in high Fowler's position may improve ventilation but does not specifically address the breathing technique required for COPD. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing is generally not recommended for clients with COPD as it can lead to air trapping and increased work of breathing.

3. What are the key differences between systolic and diastolic heart failure?

• A. Systolic: Reduced ejection fraction; Diastolic: Preserved ejection fraction
• B. Systolic: Preserved ejection fraction; Diastolic: Reduced ejection fraction
• C. Systolic: Right-sided heart failure; Diastolic: Left-sided heart failure
• D. Systolic: Pulmonary congestion; Diastolic: Systemic congestion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Systolic heart failure is characterized by reduced ejection fraction, meaning the heart is not pumping effectively. Diastolic heart failure, on the other hand, is characterized by preserved ejection fraction, indicating that the heart has difficulty relaxing and filling properly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the key differences between systolic and diastolic heart failure.

4. What are early indicators of dehydration?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Increased thirst
• C. Decreased urine output
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, dry mouth, and B, increased thirst are early indicators of dehydration. Dry mouth occurs when the body is dehydrated, and increased thirst is the body's way of trying to increase fluid intake to combat dehydration. Choices C and D, decreased urine output and dizziness, can be signs of severe dehydration but are not typically considered early indicators.

5. What are the primary goals of post-operative care for a patient who has undergone abdominal surgery?

• A. Pain Management
• B. Wound Care
• C. Prevention of Complications
• D. Digestive Function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pain Management. After abdominal surgery, one of the primary goals of post-operative care is to manage the patient's pain effectively to ensure their comfort and promote recovery. While wound care, prevention of complications, and ensuring digestive function are also important aspects of post-operative care, pain management takes precedence as it directly impacts the patient's well-being and recovery process.

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