Nursing Elites

1. What should be included in dietary teaching for a client with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet
• B. Limit phosphorus and potassium intake
• C. Encourage protein-rich foods to improve nutrition
• D. Increase calcium-rich foods in the diet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to limit phosphorus and potassium intake for a client with chronic kidney disease. In renal insufficiency, the kidneys struggle to excrete these minerals, leading to their buildup in the blood, which can be harmful. Limiting phosphorus and potassium intake helps prevent further kidney damage and manage the progression of chronic kidney disease. Encouraging protein-rich foods (Choice C) may be counterproductive as excessive protein intake can burden the kidneys. Increasing potassium-rich foods (Choice A) is incorrect as high potassium levels can be detrimental in kidney disease. Increasing calcium-rich foods (Choice D) is not typically a focus in dietary teaching for chronic kidney disease unless there is a specific deficiency or need, as excessive calcium intake can also be harmful to kidney function.

2. A nurse is teaching a client who is to undergo total knee arthroplasty about postoperative care. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply heat to the affected knee
• B. Avoid placing pillows under the knee
• C. Avoid moving the knee for 2-3 days
• D. Apply ice to the affected knee for 24-48 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to apply ice to the affected knee for 24-48 hours. Applying ice helps to reduce inflammation and pain after knee surgery, promoting healing. Choice A is incorrect because heat is not recommended postoperatively, as it can increase swelling. Choice B is incorrect because pillows should be placed under the knee to keep it elevated. Choice C is incorrect because early mobilization is essential for preventing complications such as blood clots.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following an appendectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Urine output of 20 mL/hr.
• B. Temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F).
• C. Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing.
• D. WBC count of 9,000/mm3.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urine output of 20 mL/hr. A urine output less than 30 mL/hr can indicate decreased renal perfusion, potentially due to hypovolemia or other issues, and should be reported to the provider. B: A temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F) falls within the normal range and does not require immediate reporting. C: Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is expected in the early postoperative period and should be monitored but does not need immediate reporting unless excessive. D: A WBC count of 9,000/mm3 is within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate concern.

4. How should a healthcare professional assess and manage a patient with a tracheostomy?

• A. Monitor for signs of infection and ensure airway patency
• B. Suction airway secretions and provide humidified air
• C. Inspect stoma site and clean with saline
• D. Provide education on tracheostomy care

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct answer: Monitoring for signs of infection and ensuring airway patency is crucial in managing a patient with a tracheostomy. This involves observing for redness, swelling, or discharge at the stoma site, as well as assessing for any signs of respiratory distress. Choice B, suctioning airway secretions and providing humidified air, is important for maintaining airway hygiene but may not be the initial assessment priority. Choice C, inspecting the stoma site and cleaning with saline, is part of routine tracheostomy care but does not address immediate assessment and management needs. Choice D, providing education on tracheostomy care, is valuable but not the primary action required in the assessment and management of a patient with a tracheostomy.

5. A client has a prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Place the tablet under the tongue and wait 10 minutes
• B. Take up to five tablets during an angina episode
• C. Take up to three tablets during a single angina episode
• D. Swallow the tablet with water

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Take up to three tablets during a single angina episode.' Nitroglycerin can be taken up to three times during an episode to relieve angina. Choice A is incorrect because the client should place the tablet under the tongue and wait for it to dissolve, not wait for 10 minutes. Choice B is incorrect because taking up to five tablets during an angina episode is excessive and not recommended. Choice D is incorrect because nitroglycerin tablets are meant to be taken sublingually, not swallowed.

Similar Questions