what should be included in the dietary teaching for a client with chronic kidney disease
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024

1. What should be included in dietary teaching for a client with chronic kidney disease?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to limit phosphorus and potassium intake for a client with chronic kidney disease. In renal insufficiency, the kidneys struggle to excrete these minerals, leading to their buildup in the blood, which can be harmful. Limiting phosphorus and potassium intake helps prevent further kidney damage and manage the progression of chronic kidney disease. Encouraging protein-rich foods (Choice C) may be counterproductive as excessive protein intake can burden the kidneys. Increasing potassium-rich foods (Choice A) is incorrect as high potassium levels can be detrimental in kidney disease. Increasing calcium-rich foods (Choice D) is not typically a focus in dietary teaching for chronic kidney disease unless there is a specific deficiency or need, as excessive calcium intake can also be harmful to kidney function.

2. What are early indicators of dehydration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, dry mouth, and B, increased thirst are early indicators of dehydration. Dry mouth occurs when the body is dehydrated, and increased thirst is the body's way of trying to increase fluid intake to combat dehydration. Choices C and D, decreased urine output and dizziness, can be signs of severe dehydration but are not typically considered early indicators.

3. A client has hypoglycemia and is conscious. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In conscious clients with hypoglycemia, the most appropriate action is to provide a rapidly absorbed carbohydrate source like fruit juice to raise blood glucose levels quickly. Administering glucagon intramuscularly (IM) is usually reserved for unconscious clients or those who are unable to take oral glucose. Providing peanut butter or water would not rapidly address the hypoglycemic state as fruit juice would.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery and has a new prescription for a regular diet. For which of the following findings should the nurse notify the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Absent bowel sounds are concerning as they indicate potential complications such as ileus, which is a risk after abdominal surgery. The absence of bowel sounds can suggest decreased or absent intestinal motility, which may lead to complications if not addressed promptly. The nurse should notify the provider immediately to assess the situation and intervene accordingly. Choices A and B are common postoperative occurrences and do not necessarily warrant immediate provider notification. Choice C, vomiting, while concerning, may be a common postoperative symptom; however, absent bowel sounds are a more critical finding that requires prompt attention.

5. What are the primary differences between left-sided and right-sided heart failure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Left-sided: Pulmonary congestion; Right-sided: Systemic edema." Left-sided heart failure primarily affects the lungs, leading to pulmonary congestion, which manifests as symptoms like shortness of breath and cough. On the other hand, right-sided heart failure causes systemic congestion and edema, often presenting as swelling in the legs and abdomen due to fluid retention. Choice B is incorrect because it swaps the features of left-sided and right-sided heart failure. Choice C is incorrect as it also incorrectly switches the characteristics of the two types of heart failure. Choice D is incorrect because it inaccurately associates left-sided heart failure with pulmonary congestion and right-sided heart failure with heart failure itself, which is not a distinguishing feature.

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