Nursing Elites

1. A client with a tracheostomy is exhibiting signs of respiratory distress. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider
• B. Suction the tracheostomy
• C. Administer a bronchodilator
• D. Increase the oxygen flow rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with a tracheostomy is experiencing respiratory distress, the priority action is to suction the tracheostomy to clear the airway and improve breathing. This helps remove secretions or blockages that may be causing the distress. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice A) can be done after ensuring immediate airway clearance. Administering a bronchodilator (Choice C) would not address the primary issue of airway clearance in a tracheostomy patient. Increasing the oxygen flow rate (Choice D) may be necessary but should come after ensuring the airway is clear.

2. A nurse is contributing to the plan of care for a client who has a chest tube connected to a closed drainage system. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Clamp the chest tube
• B. Maintain the drainage below the level of the chest
• C. Elevate the chest tube above chest level
• D. Avoid frequent dressing changes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with a chest tube connected to a closed drainage system is to maintain the drainage below the level of the chest. This position allows proper drainage of fluids and helps prevent complications such as backflow of blood or fluids into the chest cavity. Clamping the chest tube (Choice A) is incorrect as it can lead to a tension pneumothorax. Elevating the chest tube above chest level (Choice C) is also incorrect because it can impede proper drainage. Avoiding frequent dressing changes (Choice D) is important to prevent introducing infection, but it is not directly related to the position of the drainage system.

3. When caring for a client diagnosed with delirium, what condition should the nurse prioritize investigating?

• A. Investigate medication history
• B. Investigate sensory deficits
• C. Investigate cognitive functioning
• D. Investigate for signs of infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to investigate for signs of infection when caring for a client diagnosed with delirium. Infections can frequently cause or worsen delirium. While investigating medication history, sensory deficits, and cognitive functioning may be important in the overall care of the client, when prioritizing, the nurse should first rule out or address potential infections due to their significant impact on delirium.

4. What are the key components of a neurological assessment?

• A. Assess level of consciousness and motor function
• B. Check for headache and nausea
• C. Monitor reflexes and pupil size
• D. Assess for tremors and confusion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A neurological assessment includes evaluating the level of consciousness and motor function as they are key components in assessing neurological function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as headache, nausea, reflexes, pupil size, tremors, and confusion may be part of a neurological assessment but are not the key components that are fundamental for a comprehensive assessment.

5. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for haloperidol. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report to the provider?

• A. Weight gain.
• B. Dry mouth.
• C. Sedation.
• D. Shuffling gait.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Shuffling gait. A shuffling gait can indicate extrapyramidal symptoms, a potentially serious side effect of haloperidol. Extrapyramidal symptoms include movement disorders such as dystonia, akathisia, parkinsonism, and tardive dyskinesia. Reporting this symptom promptly is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are common side effects of haloperidol but are not as urgent or indicative of serious complications compared to a shuffling gait.

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