Nursing Elites

1. What should be included in dietary teaching for a client with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet
• B. Limit potassium and phosphorus intake
• C. Increase intake of protein-rich foods
• D. Increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to limit potassium and phosphorus intake for a client with chronic kidney disease. Excessive potassium and phosphorus can be harmful to individuals with compromised kidney function. Option A is incorrect because increasing potassium-rich foods can exacerbate hyperkalemia in individuals with kidney disease. Option C may not be ideal as excessive protein intake can put extra strain on the kidneys. Option D is not the priority; while adequate fluid intake is important, it is not the primary focus when teaching dietary considerations for chronic kidney disease.

2. What are the risk factors for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and how can it be prevented?

• A. Immobility and oral contraceptive use
• B. Pregnancy and smoking
• C. Obesity and varicose veins
• D. Hypertension and high cholesterol

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobility and oral contraceptive use. Immobility and oral contraceptive use are significant risk factors for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Immobility leads to blood stasis, increasing the risk of clot formation, while oral contraceptive use can promote hypercoagulability. Prevention strategies for DVT include promoting mobility to enhance blood circulation and using anticoagulants to prevent clot formation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. While pregnancy and smoking can increase the risk of DVT, they are not the specific factors mentioned in the question. Similarly, obesity and varicose veins, as well as hypertension and high cholesterol, are not the primary risk factors associated with DVT.

3. How should a healthcare provider assess a patient with sepsis?

• A. Monitor vital signs and administer fluids
• B. Monitor for fever and administer antibiotics
• C. Check for tachycardia and elevated white blood cell count
• D. Administer fluids and provide nutritional support

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In sepsis, it is crucial to monitor vital signs to assess the patient's condition and administer fluids to maintain circulation. This approach helps in stabilizing blood pressure and perfusion. While monitoring for fever and administering antibiotics (choice B) is important in managing sepsis, the initial priority lies in assessing and stabilizing the patient's hemodynamic status. Checking for tachycardia and elevated white blood cell count (choice C) can be part of the assessment but does not encompass the immediate intervention needed in sepsis. Administering fluids and providing nutritional support (choice D) are essential in managing sepsis, but the primary step should be to assess the patient's condition through vital sign monitoring.

4. When instructing a client with tuberculosis on home care, what is the priority teaching point?

• A. Wear a surgical mask at all times
• B. Limit visitors to two-hour increments
• C. Take medication for 6-9 months
• D. Take breaks during meals

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Take medication for 6-9 months.' The priority teaching point for a client with tuberculosis is to ensure they understand the importance of completing the entire course of medication. This is crucial to effectively treat and cure tuberculosis, prevent the development of drug-resistant strains, and reduce the risk of transmission to others. Choice A is incorrect as wearing a surgical mask at all times is not the priority teaching point for tuberculosis home care. Choice B is not the priority teaching point; while limiting visitors can help reduce exposure to others, completing the medication course is more critical. Choice D is not relevant to tuberculosis home care instructions.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

• A. Hyperactivity
• B. Hypervigilance
• C. Restlessness
• D. Avoidance of social situations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypervigilance. Individuals with PTSD often experience hypervigilance, which involves being overly alert, easily startled, and constantly scanning their environment for potential threats. This heightened state of awareness is a common response to the trauma experienced. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperactivity is not typically a primary manifestation of PTSD; restlessness may occur but is not as characteristic as hypervigilance, and although avoidance of social situations can be a symptom of PTSD, hypervigilance is more directly associated with the disorder.

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