what are the key signs of infection after surgery
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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet

1. What are the key signs of infection after surgery?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After surgery, key signs of infection include redness, swelling, and fever. Redness and swelling can indicate inflammation at the surgical site, while fever is a systemic response to infection. Choosing 'All of the above' (Option D) is the correct answer because all three signs are commonly associated with post-surgical infections. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as each of them individually can be a sign of infection, but considering all three together provides a more comprehensive assessment for post-operative infection.

2. What is the first priority for a patient in respiratory distress?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer oxygen. In a patient experiencing respiratory distress, the primary concern is ensuring an adequate oxygen supply to the body. By administering oxygen, you can help improve oxygenation, which is crucial for the patient's overall well-being. Assessing airway patency is important but administering oxygen takes precedence as it directly addresses the oxygenation concern. Monitoring oxygen saturation is also essential, but the immediate action should be to provide oxygen. Calling for assistance can be important but is not the first priority when dealing with a patient in respiratory distress.

3. A nurse is collecting data from a client who is in severe pain. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should first ask the client where the pain is located because identifying the location of the pain is crucial in determining the cause and appropriate treatment. This information helps in further assessment and diagnosis. Asking when the pain started (Choice A) may be important but determining the location provides more immediate insights. Inquiring about the severity of pain (Choice B) and what worsens it (Choice C) are also important but come after identifying the location to provide a comprehensive understanding of the client's condition.

4. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

5. A nurse is planning care for a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's deep-tendon reflexes. Monitoring deep-tendon reflexes is crucial in clients with preeclampsia as hyperreflexia can indicate severe complications. Restricting the client's fluid intake is not recommended as hydration is essential. Placing the client in the lithotomy position can worsen preeclampsia by reducing blood flow to the heart, so it should be avoided. Encouraging the client to ambulate frequently may not be suitable for a client with preeclampsia due to the risk of falls and increased stress on the body.

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