Nursing Elites

1. What is the proper technique for obtaining a blood specimen from a central venous line?

• A. Use sterile gloves and discard the first 10 mL of blood
• B. Flush the line with heparin and then draw the specimen
• C. Draw the specimen and then administer heparin
• D. Use non-sterile gloves to reduce contamination risk

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct technique for obtaining a blood specimen from a central venous line is to use sterile gloves and discard the first 10 mL of blood. This practice helps ensure that the blood sample collected is not contaminated. Choice B is incorrect because flushing the line with heparin before drawing the specimen can contaminate the sample. Choice C is incorrect as administering heparin before drawing the specimen can affect the accuracy of the blood sample. Choice D is incorrect as using non-sterile gloves increases the risk of contamination, which is not recommended when obtaining a blood specimen from a central venous line.

2. What are the key interventions in managing a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

• A. Administer insulin and fluids
• B. Administer oral hypoglycemics
• C. Administer glucagon
• D. Administer insulin and monitor blood glucose

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention in managing a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is to administer insulin and fluids. Insulin is crucial to correct hyperglycemia, while fluids are important to address dehydration. Administering oral hypoglycemics (Choice B) is not appropriate in the management of DKA as the patient may not be able to absorb oral medications due to gastrointestinal issues. Glucagon (Choice C) is not indicated in the treatment of DKA. Although monitoring blood glucose (Choice D) is important, it is not the sole key intervention for managing DKA; administering insulin and fluids are the primary interventions.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is taking enalapril for hypertension. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood pressure of 150/80 mm Hg
• B. Swelling in the legs
• C. Persistent cough
• D. Heart rate of 72 beats per minute

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Persistent cough. Enalapril is known to cause a persistent dry cough as a side effect. This adverse reaction is due to the accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs, leading to irritation and cough. The nurse should report this symptom to the provider for further evaluation and possible medication adjustment. Choices A, B, and D are not directly associated with enalapril use. While a blood pressure of 150/80 mm Hg is elevated and should be monitored, it is not a direct side effect of enalapril. Swelling in the legs and a heart rate of 72 beats per minute are also not typically related to enalapril use and should be assessed but are not the priority findings to report in this scenario.

4. What is the correct procedure for taking a telephone order from a provider?

• A. State patient name, drug, dose, route, frequency, and read back the order
• B. State the medication and ask for a witness to listen to the order
• C. Write down the order and verify with the provider within 12 hours
• D. Have the provider verify the order during the next in-person visit

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct procedure for taking a telephone order from a provider is to state the patient's name, drug, dose, route, frequency, and then read back the order to ensure accuracy. This process helps in preventing errors and ensures that all relevant information is correctly documented. Choice B is incorrect because having a witness listen to the order is not a standard practice and may not guarantee accuracy. Choice C is incorrect as verifying the order within 12 hours may lead to delays in patient care. Choice D is incorrect because waiting for the provider to verify the order during the next in-person visit could result in a significant delay in administering necessary medication.

5. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

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