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ATI Mental Health Practice A
1. What is the primary goal of exposure therapy for a patient with specific phobia?
- A. To eliminate the phobic response completely
- B. To increase the patient's exposure to the feared object
- C. To help the patient confront and reduce their fear gradually
- D. To provide immediate relief from anxiety symptoms
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The primary goal of exposure therapy for a patient with a specific phobia is to help them confront their fear gradually, leading to a reduction in their fear response over time. This gradual exposure helps the individual learn to manage and cope with their phobia, ultimately reducing the intensity of their fear reactions. Choice A is incorrect because while the goal is to reduce the fear response, complete elimination may not always be feasible. Choice B is incorrect as the focus is not solely on increasing exposure but on gradual confrontation. Choice D is incorrect as the therapy aims for long-term reduction rather than immediate relief.
2. A patient with social anxiety disorder is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which symptom is this medication most likely intended to address?
- A. Panic attacks
- B. Tremors and palpitations
- C. Recurrent, intrusive thoughts
- D. Depression
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Beta-blockers are commonly used to alleviate physical symptoms associated with anxiety disorders, such as tremors and palpitations. These medications help manage the autonomic symptoms of anxiety, like increased heart rate and trembling, which are often prominent in social anxiety disorder. Beta-blockers do not primarily target cognitive symptoms like recurrent, intrusive thoughts (choice C), panic attacks (choice A), or depression (choice D) in social anxiety disorder.
3. When a patient with schizophrenia is taking haloperidol, what is a priority assessment for the nurse?
- A. Assessing for signs of tardive dyskinesia
- B. Monitoring for signs of neuroleptic malignant syndrome
- C. Checking for signs of depression
- D. Monitoring for changes in appetite
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Monitoring for signs of neuroleptic malignant syndrome is crucial for patients taking haloperidol. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but serious side effect that can occur with antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. It presents with symptoms such as high fever, unstable blood pressure, confusion, muscle rigidity, and autonomic dysfunction. Early detection and intervention are essential to prevent serious complications.
4. A patient diagnosed with panic disorder asks the nurse about the purpose of deep breathing exercises. Which explanation by the nurse is most accurate?
- A. Deep breathing helps distract you from your anxiety.
- B. Deep breathing can prevent future panic attacks.
- C. Deep breathing helps reduce physical symptoms of anxiety.
- D. Deep breathing increases your overall lung capacity.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Deep breathing helps reduce the physical symptoms of anxiety, such as rapid heartbeat and shortness of breath.
5. A patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed buspirone. Which statement by the patient indicates effective understanding of the medication?
- A. I will take this medication only when I feel anxious.
- B. I should start feeling less anxious within a few days.
- C. This medication can be addictive if taken for a long time.
- D. It may take a few weeks for this medication to become effective.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because buspirone may take a few weeks to become effective in treating generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Patients should be aware of this delay and not expect immediate relief from their symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because buspirone is typically taken regularly, not just when feeling anxious. Choice B is incorrect because the onset of action for buspirone is gradual, and patients should not expect immediate relief within a few days. Choice C is incorrect because buspirone is not considered addictive, unlike some other medications used for anxiety disorders.
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