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ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. Which of the following interventions is most effective in managing a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?
- A. Encouraging the patient to engage in repetitive behaviors.
- B. Helping the patient to understand that their thoughts are irrational.
- C. Providing the patient with a structured daily routine.
- D. Allowing the patient to avoid situations that trigger their obsessions.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most effective intervention in managing a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is helping the patient to understand that their thoughts are irrational. This cognitive-behavioral approach can assist in reducing the frequency and intensity of obsessive thoughts and compulsive behaviors by challenging and reframing maladaptive beliefs and thought patterns associated with OCD. Encouraging the patient to engage in repetitive behaviors (choice A) reinforces the compulsive behavior rather than addressing the underlying issue. Providing a structured daily routine (choice C) may help in some cases but does not directly target the irrational thoughts and beliefs. Allowing the patient to avoid trigger situations (choice D) can provide temporary relief but does not address the core problem of irrational thoughts and behaviors.
2. What is the primary goal of exposure therapy for a patient with specific phobia?
- A. To eliminate the phobic response completely
- B. To increase the patient's exposure to the feared object
- C. To help the patient confront and reduce their fear gradually
- D. To provide immediate relief from anxiety symptoms
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The primary goal of exposure therapy for a patient with a specific phobia is to help them confront their fear gradually, leading to a reduction in their fear response over time. This gradual exposure helps the individual learn to manage and cope with their phobia, ultimately reducing the intensity of their fear reactions. Choice A is incorrect because while the goal is to reduce the fear response, complete elimination may not always be feasible. Choice B is incorrect as the focus is not solely on increasing exposure but on gradual confrontation. Choice D is incorrect as the therapy aims for long-term reduction rather than immediate relief.
3. What assessment findings would indicate lithium toxicity in a patient hospitalized for an acute manic episode?
- A. Shortness of breath, gastrointestinal distress, chronic cough
- B. Ataxia, severe hypotension, large volume of dilute urine
- C. Gastrointestinal distress, thirst, nystagmus
- D. Electroencephalographic changes, chest pain, dizziness
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a patient suspected of lithium toxicity, the presence of ataxia, severe hypotension, and a large volume of dilute urine are key assessment findings. Ataxia is a sign of central nervous system involvement, severe hypotension indicates cardiovascular effects, and a large volume of dilute urine suggests renal impairment, all of which are commonly seen in severe lithium toxicity. Options A, C, and D do not align with typical signs of lithium toxicity.
4. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient experiencing a panic attack?
- A. Encouraging the patient to focus on deep breathing exercises.
- B. Encouraging the patient to avoid any physical activity.
- C. Asking the patient to describe their feelings in detail.
- D. Providing the patient with detailed information about panic attacks.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a patient experiencing a panic attack is to encourage them to focus on deep breathing exercises. This intervention helps the patient manage the physiological symptoms of a panic attack by promoting relaxation and reducing hyperventilation, which are common during such episodes. Deep breathing exercises can help regulate breathing patterns and alleviate feelings of anxiety and panic.
5. What is a common side effect of benzodiazepines prescribed for anxiety?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Insomnia
- C. Drowsiness
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Drowsiness. Benzodiazepines, commonly prescribed for anxiety, often cause drowsiness as a side effect due to their sedative properties. This can lead to impairments in cognitive and motor skills, making it important for individuals on these medications to exercise caution when performing tasks that require alertness, such as driving or operating machinery. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because weight gain, insomnia, and increased appetite are not typically associated with benzodiazepines; instead, drowsiness and sedation are more commonly reported side effects.
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