Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is an example of a fibrous protein?

• A. Insulin
• B. Keratin
• C. Hemoglobin
• D. Collagen

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A) Insulin is a hormone, not a fibrous protein. It is produced in the pancreas and regulates blood sugar levels. B) Keratin is a fibrous structural protein found in hair, nails, and the outer skin layer, providing strength and protection. C) Hemoglobin is a globular protein in red blood cells responsible for oxygen transport; it is not fibrous. D) Collagen is a fibrous protein found in tendons, ligaments, and skin, offering strength and structure to connective tissues. Therefore, the correct answer is collagen, making it the main component of various connective tissues.

2. What describes a cell’s reaction to being placed in a hypertonic solution?

• A. The cell will shrink as water is pulled out of the cell to equalize the concentrations inside and outside of the cell.
• B. The cell will swell as water is pulled into the cell to equalize the concentrations inside and outside of the cell.
• C. The cell will remain the same size since the concentrations inside and outside the cell are equal to begin with.
• D. The pH inside the cell will drop in order to equalize the pH inside and outside the cell.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A cell placed in a hypertonic solution has a higher solute concentration outside the cell compared to inside. This creates a concentration gradient that causes water to move out of the cell through osmosis to equalize the concentrations on both sides. As a result, the cell will shrink or undergo plasmolysis, as water is pulled out of the cell. Choice B is incorrect because a hypertonic solution causes water to move out of the cell, leading to shrinkage rather than swelling. Choice C is incorrect as a hypertonic solution results in a concentration gradient that leads to water leaving the cell, causing it to shrink. Choice D is incorrect because pH is not directly affected by being placed in a hypertonic solution; the change in solute concentration primarily impacts water movement.

3. Which part of the brain is responsible for balance and coordination?

• A. Cerebellum
• B. Cerebrum
• C. Hypothalamus
• D. Thalamus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the cerebellum. It plays a vital role in balance and coordination by controlling motor functions, precision, and timing of movements. The cerebrum is primarily involved in higher brain functions such as thinking and problem-solving. The hypothalamus regulates essential bodily functions like temperature and hunger, while the thalamus serves as a relay station for sensory information, directing it to the appropriate areas of the brain for processing.

4. Which of the following statements correctly describes the function of a physiological structure?

• A. The trachea connects the throat and the stomach.
• B. The esophagus joins the larynx with the lungs.
• C. The diaphragm controls the height of the thoracic cavity.
• D. The epiglottis covers the trachea during swallowing.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The epiglottis is a flap of tissue that covers the trachea during swallowing to prevent food and liquids from entering the airway. This action helps direct food into the esophagus, ensuring proper passage into the digestive system and avoiding potential choking or aspiration into the lungs. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the trachea connects the larynx to the bronchi, the esophagus connects the throat to the stomach, and the diaphragm is a muscle that plays a vital role in breathing by separating the thoracic and abdominal cavities, aiding in respiration.

5. What is the difference between active and passive immunity?

• A. Active immunity is short-lived, while passive immunity is long-lasting.
• B. Active immunity involves the body's own immune response, while passive immunity provides immediate protection through antibodies from another source.
• C. Active immunity only protects against bacterial infections, while passive immunity works against both bacteria and viruses.
• D. Passive immunity requires repeated vaccinations, while active immunity is a one-time process.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Active immunity involves the body's own immune response, where the individual's immune system produces antibodies in response to exposure to a pathogen or vaccine. This type of immunity is long-lasting because the immune system 'remembers' the pathogen and can mount a rapid response upon re-exposure. In contrast, passive immunity provides immediate protection through the transfer of pre-formed antibodies from another source, such as through maternal antibodies crossing the placenta or receiving antibodies through an injection. Passive immunity is short-lived because the transferred antibodies eventually degrade and are not produced by the recipient's immune system. Choice A is incorrect because active immunity is generally long-lasting, as it involves the production of antibodies by the individual's immune system. Choice C is incorrect as both active and passive immunity can work against various pathogens, not limited to bacteria or viruses. Choice D is incorrect as passive immunity does not require repeated vaccinations but provides temporary protection through the transfer of antibodies from an external source.

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