ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Answers
1. What are the signs and symptoms of a potential infection?
- A. Fever, chills, and increased heart rate
- B. Increased white blood cell count and fever
- C. Shortness of breath and confusion
- D. Sweating and low blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fever, chills, and increased heart rate are classic signs of an infection. These symptoms indicate the body's response to an invading pathogen. Choice B, 'Increased white blood cell count and fever,' is not a primary symptom that a person would typically notice themselves, and white blood cell count needs to be tested. Choice C, 'Shortness of breath and confusion,' may indicate other conditions like heart or lung issues rather than a general infection. Choice D, 'Sweating and low blood pressure,' are not specific to infections and can be caused by various factors like heat or dehydration.
2. How should a healthcare professional monitor a patient receiving IV potassium?
- A. Monitor ECG for dysrhythmias
- B. Monitor urine output
- C. Monitor serum potassium levels
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a patient is receiving IV potassium, it is crucial to monitor various parameters to ensure patient safety. Monitoring the ECG helps in identifying any potential dysrhythmias that may occur due to potassium imbalances. Monitoring urine output is important as potassium levels can affect renal function. Monitoring serum potassium levels is essential to assess the effectiveness of the IV potassium therapy. Therefore, all the options - monitoring ECG for dysrhythmias, urine output, and serum potassium levels - are necessary when administering IV potassium, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are not individually sufficient as they each address different aspects of patient monitoring when receiving IV potassium.
3. The physician orders risperidone (Risperdal) for a client with Alzheimer's disease. The nurse anticipates administering this medication to help decrease which of the following behaviors?
- A. Sleep disturbances
- B. Concomitant depression
- C. Agitation and assaultiveness
- D. Confusion and withdrawal
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Agitation and assaultiveness. Risperidone is commonly prescribed for clients with Alzheimer's disease to reduce symptoms of agitation and aggressive behavior. This medication helps in managing challenging behaviors often seen in individuals with Alzheimer's. Choice A, sleep disturbances, is incorrect as risperidone is not primarily indicated for treating sleep issues in Alzheimer's patients. Choice B, concomitant depression, is also incorrect as risperidone is not the first-line treatment for depression in Alzheimer's disease. Choice D, confusion and withdrawal, is incorrect as risperidone does not directly target these symptoms in Alzheimer's patients.
4. What should be included in dietary teaching for a client with chronic kidney disease?
- A. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet
- B. Limit potassium and phosphorus intake
- C. Increase intake of protein-rich foods
- D. Increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to limit potassium and phosphorus intake for a client with chronic kidney disease. Excessive potassium and phosphorus can be harmful to individuals with compromised kidney function. Option A is incorrect because increasing potassium-rich foods can exacerbate hyperkalemia in individuals with kidney disease. Option C may not be ideal as excessive protein intake can put extra strain on the kidneys. Option D is not the priority; while adequate fluid intake is important, it is not the primary focus when teaching dietary considerations for chronic kidney disease.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia and new onset confusion. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Increase the client's oxygen flow rate
- B. Obtain the client's vital signs
- C. Administer an antibiotic
- D. Notify the provider
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: Increasing the client's oxygen flow rate should be the nurse's first action. Hypoxia is a common complication of pneumonia and can lead to confusion. Providing adequate oxygenation is essential in addressing hypoxia and improving the client's condition.\nOption B: Obtaining vital signs is important but addressing hypoxia takes precedence in the setting of new onset confusion.\nOption C: Administering an antibiotic is important for treating pneumonia but addressing hypoxia and confusion is the priority.\nOption D: Notifying the provider may be necessary but addressing the immediate physiological need of oxygenation should come first.
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