what are the signs and symptoms of a potential infection
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Answers

1. What are the signs and symptoms of a potential infection?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fever, chills, and increased heart rate are classic signs of an infection. These symptoms indicate the body's response to an invading pathogen. Choice B, 'Increased white blood cell count and fever,' is not a primary symptom that a person would typically notice themselves, and white blood cell count needs to be tested. Choice C, 'Shortness of breath and confusion,' may indicate other conditions like heart or lung issues rather than a general infection. Choice D, 'Sweating and low blood pressure,' are not specific to infections and can be caused by various factors like heat or dehydration.

2. A nurse is collecting data from a postpartum client who had a vaginal birth 2 days ago. Which of the following findings is the nurse's priority to report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Burning with urination.' Burning with urination can indicate a urinary tract infection postpartum, which requires immediate attention to prevent complications. Bright red bleeding and heavy lochia flow are expected findings in the early postpartum period as the uterus continues to contract and expel lochia. A headache alone is not uncommon postpartum and is often attributed to hormonal changes, dehydration, or fatigue, and can be managed with adequate rest, hydration, and pain relief. Therefore, the priority here is to address the potential infection indicated by burning with urination.

3. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with hyperkalemia?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In managing hyperkalemia, it is essential to administer insulin and glucose to shift potassium into the cells, restrict potassium intake to prevent further elevation of serum levels, and monitor the ECG for signs of potassium-induced cardiac effects. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as all of the provided actions are important in the management of hyperkalemia. Choice A alone is not sufficient as it only addresses shifting potassium intracellularly without preventing further elevation. Choice B alone is not enough as it does not address the immediate need to lower serum potassium levels. Choice C alone is insufficient as it only monitors for cardiac effects without addressing potassium levels or shifting mechanisms.

4. A patient took an overdose of acetaminophen. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer to the patient?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose. It works by replenishing glutathione, a key component in detoxifying acetaminophen metabolites, thus preventing liver damage. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, not acetaminophen. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antidote. Activated charcoal is used to limit absorption in cases of poisoning, but it is not the antidote for acetaminophen overdose.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer a client's morning medications. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to verify the client's identity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action to verify a client's identity when administering medications is to scan the client's facility identification band. This method ensures accuracy and helps prevent medication errors. Asking the client's full name (Choice A) may not be reliable as names can be similar, leading to confusion. Calling the client's name (Choice C) may not be effective if there are multiple clients with the same name in the facility. Verifying with a second nurse (Choice D) is an important safety measure for certain tasks but is not specifically for verifying a client's identity.

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