Nursing Elites

1. What are the risk factors for pressure ulcer development?

• A. Immobility and poor nutrition
• B. Obesity and diabetes
• C. Dehydration and malnutrition
• D. Use of assistive devices and prolonged bedrest

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The correct answer is immobility and poor nutrition. Immobility can lead to constant pressure on certain areas of the body, while poor nutrition can impair tissue repair and regeneration, both contributing to the development of pressure ulcers. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while obesity, diabetes, dehydration, malnutrition, use of assistive devices, and prolonged bedrest can impact skin integrity and wound healing, they are not the primary risk factors specifically associated with pressure ulcer development.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following an appendectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Urine output of 20 mL/hr.
• B. Temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F).
• C. Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing.
• D. WBC count of 9,000/mm3.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urine output of 20 mL/hr. A urine output less than 30 mL/hr can indicate decreased renal perfusion, potentially due to hypovolemia or other issues, and should be reported to the provider. B: A temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F) falls within the normal range and does not require immediate reporting. C: Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is expected in the early postoperative period and should be monitored but does not need immediate reporting unless excessive. D: A WBC count of 9,000/mm3 is within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate concern.

3. A healthcare professional is collecting data from a client who is experiencing post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Hyperactivity
• B. Hypervigilance
• C. Restlessness
• D. Avoidance of social situations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypervigilance is a common manifestation of PTSD characterized by heightened alertness and fear of danger. This heightened state of awareness can lead to irritability, difficulty concentrating, and sleep disturbances. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperactivity is not typically associated with PTSD; restlessness may be present but is not the primary manifestation, and avoidance of social situations is more commonly seen in conditions like social anxiety disorder rather than PTSD.

4. A client post-lumbar puncture should be in which position?

• A. High Fowler's position
• B. Prone position
• C. Supine position
• D. Sitting position

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate position for a client post-lumbar puncture is the supine position. Placing the client in a supine position helps prevent spinal headaches by allowing the puncture site to seal effectively and reducing the risk of cerebrospinal fluid leakage. High Fowler's position, prone position, and sitting position are not recommended after a lumbar puncture as they may increase the risk of complications like spinal headaches.

5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is to start taking digoxin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should take this medication with food.
• B. I will contact my provider if my heart rate is below 60 beats per minute.
• C. I should take an antacid with this medication to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
• D. I will need to take this medication for 14 days.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client should contact their provider if their heart rate drops below 60 beats per minute, as this could indicate digoxin toxicity.

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