what are the risk factors for pressure ulcer development
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024

1. What are the risk factors for pressure ulcer development?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The correct answer is immobility and poor nutrition. Immobility can lead to constant pressure on certain areas of the body, while poor nutrition can impair tissue repair and regeneration, both contributing to the development of pressure ulcers. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while obesity, diabetes, dehydration, malnutrition, use of assistive devices, and prolonged bedrest can impact skin integrity and wound healing, they are not the primary risk factors specifically associated with pressure ulcer development.

2. Which of the following actions should the nurse take for a client who has been diagnosed with dementia and is at risk for falls?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Use a bed exit alarm system." For a client with dementia at risk for falls, a bed exit alarm system is beneficial as it alerts staff when the client is trying to get up, helping to reduce fall risks. Choice A, maintaining the client's bed in the lowest position, may not prevent falls as effectively as an alarm system. Choice C, assisting the client with ambulation every hour, may not be feasible and could disrupt the client's rest. Choice D, raising all 4 side rails for safety, can lead to restraint issues and is not recommended as a routine fall prevention measure.

3. A client with hypokalemia is commonly expected to present with which of the following findings?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Muscle weakness. Hypokalemia is characterized by low potassium levels in the blood, which can lead to muscle weakness. This occurs because potassium is essential for proper muscle function, and a deficiency can impair muscle strength. Nausea (choice B) is not a typical finding associated with hypokalemia. Tingling sensation (choice C) is more commonly linked to issues like nerve damage or poor blood circulation, rather than hypokalemia. Increased thirst (choice D) is not a direct symptom of hypokalemia; it is more commonly seen in conditions like diabetes or dehydration.

4. What are the nursing interventions for a patient with neutropenia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct nursing interventions for a patient with neutropenia include monitoring for signs of infection and administering antibiotics. Neutropenia is characterized by a low neutrophil count, which increases the risk of infections. Monitoring for signs of infection allows for early detection and prompt treatment, while administering antibiotics helps prevent or treat any infections that may occur. Isolating the patient and providing a low-microbial diet (Choice B) are not necessary unless the patient develops an active infection. Monitoring vital signs and avoiding unnecessary invasive procedures (Choice C) are important but do not specifically address the increased infection risk in neutropenic patients. Encouraging the patient to engage in social activities (Choice D) is not appropriate for a neutropenic patient due to the risk of exposure to infectious agents.

5. A client undergoing chemotherapy for cancer is being taught about potential adverse effects of the treatment. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because hair loss is a common adverse effect of chemotherapy. Options A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding drinking water before meals, experiencing an increase in appetite, or expecting appetite to increase are not related to the potential adverse effects of chemotherapy.

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