Nursing Elites

1. What are the nursing interventions for a patient with neutropenia?

• A. Monitor for signs of infection and administer antibiotics
• B. Isolate the patient and provide a low-microbial diet
• C. Monitor vital signs and avoid unnecessary invasive procedures
• D. Encourage the patient to engage in social activities

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct nursing interventions for a patient with neutropenia include monitoring for signs of infection and administering antibiotics. Neutropenia is characterized by a low neutrophil count, which increases the risk of infections. Monitoring for signs of infection allows for early detection and prompt treatment, while administering antibiotics helps prevent or treat any infections that may occur. Isolating the patient and providing a low-microbial diet (Choice B) are not necessary unless the patient develops an active infection. Monitoring vital signs and avoiding unnecessary invasive procedures (Choice C) are important but do not specifically address the increased infection risk in neutropenic patients. Encouraging the patient to engage in social activities (Choice D) is not appropriate for a neutropenic patient due to the risk of exposure to infectious agents.

2. A nurse is observing an assistive personnel (AP) apply antiembolic stockings for a client. Which of the following actions by the AP demonstrates an understanding of how to perform this skill?

• A. Apply the stocking while the client is seated
• B. Apply the stocking before the client gets out of bed
• C. Use lotion under the stocking to ease application
• D. Bunch the stocking around the heel before applying

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Applying antiembolic stockings before the client gets out of bed is crucial as it helps prevent venous stasis and clot formation. Choice A is incorrect because stockings should be applied before the client gets out of bed. Choice C is incorrect as using lotion under the stocking can cause the stocking to slip. Choice D is incorrect because the stocking should be smooth and not bunched to prevent pressure points.

3. A healthcare professional is assisting with the admission of a client who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional expect the provider to prescribe for the client?

• A. Haloperidol
• B. Disulfiram
• C. Chlordiazepoxide
• D. Phenobarbital

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Chlordiazepoxide is a benzodiazepine commonly used to manage anxiety and prevent seizures during alcohol withdrawal. Haloperidol (Choice A) is an antipsychotic medication and is not typically used for alcohol withdrawal. Disulfiram (Choice B) is used in the treatment of alcohol use disorder but is not indicated for alcohol withdrawal. Phenobarbital (Choice D) may be used for alcohol withdrawal seizures but is not the first-line medication for managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms.

4. Which intervention is most important for a client with chronic heart failure?

• A. Encourage fluid intake to prevent dehydration
• B. Monitor the client's weight daily to assess fluid balance
• C. Limit sodium intake to reduce fluid retention
• D. Restrict daily activity to prevent fatigue

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's weight daily to assess fluid balance in clients with chronic heart failure. Monitoring weight helps in detecting fluid retention or fluid loss, which is crucial in managing heart failure. Encouraging fluid intake to prevent dehydration (choice A) may worsen fluid overload in heart failure patients. Limiting sodium intake (choice C) is essential but not the most important intervention compared to monitoring weight. Restricting daily activity (choice D) is not recommended as it is important for clients with heart failure to engage in appropriate levels of physical activity to maintain their overall health.

5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is undergoing screening for prostate cancer. The nurse should expect an elevation in which of the following laboratory values?

• A. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
• B. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
• C. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
• D. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prostate-specific antigen (PSA). PSA is a marker specifically used for prostate cancer screening. Elevated levels of PSA can indicate prostate cancer or other prostate-related issues, prompting the need for further diagnostic investigations. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with prostate cancer screening. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is related to pregnancy, alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is associated with liver and germ cell tumors, and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is linked to colorectal cancer.

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