ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Questions
1. The healthcare provider is teaching a client with hypertension about lifestyle modifications. Which recommendation should the healthcare provider include?
- A. Limit alcohol consumption to one drink per day.
- B. Increase sodium intake to maintain blood pressure.
- C. Exercise vigorously for at least 30 minutes daily.
- D. Avoid high potassium foods like bananas.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Limiting alcohol intake is an essential lifestyle modification recommended for managing hypertension. Excessive alcohol consumption can raise blood pressure, so limiting it to one drink per day is beneficial in controlling hypertension. Alcohol moderation is a key part of a heart-healthy lifestyle for individuals with high blood pressure. Choice B is incorrect because increasing sodium intake can actually worsen hypertension by retaining water and increasing blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect because while exercise is important for overall health, moderate-intensity exercise is recommended for individuals with hypertension to avoid excessive strain on the heart. Choice D is incorrect because high potassium foods like bananas are actually beneficial for individuals with hypertension as they can help lower blood pressure.
2. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer a beta blocker to a client with hypertension. What parameter should be checked before administering the medication?
- A. Serum potassium level
- B. Apical pulse
- C. Oxygen saturation
- D. Pupil reaction to light
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Before administering a beta blocker, it is crucial to check the apical pulse. Beta blockers have the potential to slow down the heart rate, making it essential to assess the pulse rate to ensure it is within the safe range before giving the medication. Checking the serum potassium level (choice A) is important when administering certain medications, but it is not specifically required before giving a beta blocker. Oxygen saturation (choice C) and pupil reaction to light (choice D) are not directly related to monitoring parameters for beta blocker administration.
3. A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should reinforce which instruction?
- A. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
- B. Increase intake of dairy products.
- C. Limit intake of high-fiber foods.
- D. Avoid protein-rich foods.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid foods high in vitamin K. Clients taking warfarin need to be cautious with their vitamin K intake because vitamin K can counteract the effects of the medication. Therefore, it is essential to avoid foods high in vitamin K to maintain the therapeutic effects of warfarin. Choice B is incorrect because increasing dairy product intake is not specifically related to warfarin therapy. Choice C is incorrect as high-fiber foods do not interfere with warfarin therapy. Choice D is incorrect as protein-rich foods are not contraindicated with warfarin therapy.
4. The healthcare professional is assessing a client who presents with jaundice. Which assessment finding is most important for the healthcare professional to follow up on?
- A. Urine specific gravity of 1.03
- B. Frothy, tea-colored urine
- C. Clay-colored stools
- D. Elevated serum amylase and lipase levels
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Elevated serum amylase and lipase levels are indicative of pancreatitis, a serious condition that can manifest with jaundice. Timely follow-up is crucial to manage pancreatitis and its complications effectively in a jaundiced client. Choices A, B, and C are less critical in this scenario. Urine specific gravity within normal range, frothy tea-colored urine, and clay-colored stools can be associated with various conditions but are not directly indicative of pancreatitis, which is the most concerning condition associated with jaundice.
5. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix). The LPN/LVN should closely monitor the client for which potential complication?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes the loss of potassium in the urine, potentially leading to hypokalemia. Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, as digoxin's effects can be potentiated in the presence of low potassium levels. Monitoring for hypokalemia is crucial to prevent adverse effects and maintain the therapeutic effectiveness of digoxin in clients with heart failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hyponatremia. Instead, it commonly leads to hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access