ATI LPN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet
1. The client with a history of heart failure is taking furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory result should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Serum sodium.
- B. Serum potassium.
- C. Serum calcium.
- D. Serum magnesium.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, causing hypokalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias associated with low potassium levels.
2. The healthcare provider is caring for a patient who is taking warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the healthcare provider monitor closely?
- A. Platelet count.
- B. Prothrombin time (PT).
- C. Hemoglobin level.
- D. White blood cell count.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When caring for a patient on warfarin, monitoring prothrombin time (PT) is crucial. PT helps assess the blood's ability to clot properly, ensuring the patient maintains therapeutic anticoagulation levels while minimizing bleeding risks. Platelet count (Choice A) is important but not the most critical for warfarin therapy. Hemoglobin level (Choice C) and white blood cell count (Choice D) are not directly related to monitoring the effects of warfarin.
3. What action should the healthcare provider take to reduce the risk of vesicant extravasation in a client receiving intravenous chemotherapy?
- A. Administer an antiemetic before starting the chemotherapy.
- B. Instruct the client to drink plenty of fluids during the treatment.
- C. Keep the head of the bed elevated until the treatment is completed.
- D. Monitor the client's intravenous site hourly during the treatment.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Monitoring the intravenous site hourly is essential to identify early signs of extravasation, such as swelling or pain, which can help prevent tissue damage. Prompt detection allows for immediate intervention, minimizing the risk of serious complications associated with vesicant extravasation.
4. A male client is admitted to the neurological unit. He has just sustained a C-5 spinal cord injury. Which assessment finding of this client warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Is unable to feel sensation in the arms and hands.
- B. Has flaccid upper and lower extremities.
- C. Blood pressure is 110/70 and the apical pulse is 68.
- D. Respirations are shallow, labored, and 14 breaths/minute.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Respirations that are shallow, labored, and at 14 breaths/minute indicate potential respiratory compromise, which is a critical situation requiring immediate intervention to maintain adequate oxygenation and prevent respiratory failure.
5. A 70-year-old man presents with weight loss, jaundice, and a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Gallstones
- B. Hepatitis
- C. Pancreatic cancer
- D. Primary biliary cirrhosis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The presentation of a 70-year-old man with weight loss, jaundice, a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant, and elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels is highly suggestive of pancreatic cancer. This clinical scenario, known as Courvoisier's sign, points towards a pancreatic malignancy due to biliary obstruction. Gallstones could cause similar symptoms but would typically not present with a palpable mass. Hepatitis usually does not present with a palpable mass and would have different laboratory findings. Primary biliary cirrhosis typically presents differently with chronic cholestasis without the presence of a palpable mass or a pancreatic lesion.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access