Nursing Elites

1. The client is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) for heart failure. Which symptom would indicate digoxin toxicity?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Yellow or blurred vision
• C. Increased urination
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Yellow or blurred vision can be a sign of digoxin toxicity. These visual disturbances are concerning as they indicate a potential adverse reaction to the medication. Recognizing this symptom promptly is crucial to prevent serious complications. Increased appetite, increased urination, and diarrhea are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Therefore, option B is the correct choice in this scenario.

2. A client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) is prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor). The nurse should teach the client about which common side effect of this medication?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Muscle pain
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Muscle pain is a common side effect of statins like atorvastatin. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about this potential side effect, as it can indicate a serious condition called rhabdomyolysis, which requires immediate medical attention. Dry mouth, drowsiness, and diarrhea are not typically associated with atorvastatin use.

3. A client has a new prescription for propranolol. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Monitor heart rate daily.
• C. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. Avoid consuming dairy products.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor heart rate daily. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that can lower heart rate and blood pressure, so it is essential to monitor heart rate regularly to detect any signs of bradycardia, a potential side effect of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because propranolol can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as increasing potassium-rich foods is not specifically required with propranolol. Choice D is also incorrect as there is no need to avoid consuming dairy products with propranolol.

4. The client with chronic stable angina is prescribed a beta blocker. The nurse is reinforcing instructions. What instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with a meal.
• B. Report a pulse rate below 60 beats per minute.
• C. Discontinue the medication if dizziness occurs.
• D. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to advise the client to report a pulse rate below 60 beats per minute. Beta blockers are known to lower heart rate, and a pulse rate below 60 beats per minute may indicate bradycardia, a condition that requires medical attention. Option A, 'Take the medication with a meal,' is incorrect because beta blockers don't necessarily need to be taken with food. Option C, 'Discontinue the medication if dizziness occurs,' is incorrect because abrupt cessation of beta blockers can lead to rebound hypertension and other adverse effects. Option D, 'Avoid drinking grapefruit juice,' is unrelated to beta blockers' mechanism of action or side effects.

5. The LPN/LVN is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit and is monitoring the client for cardiac changes indicative of hypokalemia. Which occurrence noted on the cardiac monitor indicates the presence of hypokalemia?

• A. Tall, peaked T waves
• B. ST-segment depression
• C. Prolonged P-R interval
• D. Widening of the QRS complex

Correct answer: B

Rationale: ST-segment depression can indicate hypokalemia, affecting the heart's electrical conduction. Hypokalemia leads to alterations in the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, resulting in ST-segment depression on the ECG. Tall, peaked T waves are indicative of hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. A prolonged P-R interval is more commonly associated with first-degree heart block. Widening of the QRS complex is typically seen in conditions like bundle branch blocks or ventricular tachycardia, not specifically in hypokalemia.

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