Nursing Elites

1. When assisting a hospitalized client newly diagnosed with coronary artery disease (CAD) to make appropriate selections from the dietary menu, which meal should the nurse encourage the client to select?

• A. Sausage, pancakes, and toast
• B. Broccoli, buttered rice, and grilled chicken
• C. Hamburger, baked apples, and avocado salad
• D. Fresh strawberries, steamed vegetables, and baked fish

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct choice is D: Fresh strawberries, steamed vegetables, and baked fish. This meal is low in saturated fats and cholesterol, which is suitable for a client with CAD. It aligns with dietary recommendations to support heart health and manage CAD. Choices A, B, and C are less appropriate as they contain higher levels of saturated fats and cholesterol, which are not ideal for individuals with CAD.

2. A client reports chest pain that is unrelieved by three doses of nitroglycerin taken 5 minutes apart. What is the nurse's next best action?

• A. Administer another dose of nitroglycerin.
• B. Call the healthcare provider immediately.
• C. Provide oxygen via nasal cannula.
• D. Place the client in a supine position.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client's chest pain persists despite three doses of nitroglycerin, indicating a potentially severe cardiac issue like a myocardial infarction. The priority for the nurse in this situation is to involve the healthcare provider promptly. Calling the healthcare provider immediately is essential to ensure timely evaluation and appropriate intervention for the client. Administering more nitroglycerin without further assessment or instructions may not be safe and could delay necessary treatments. Providing oxygen or changing the client's position may offer some comfort but does not address the underlying potentially life-threatening condition, making these options less appropriate as the immediate next best action.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Dry cough
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypokalemia is a known side effect of furosemide, a loop diuretic. Furosemide causes increased excretion of potassium in the urine, leading to low potassium levels in the body which can result in serious complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, any signs or symptoms of hypokalemia should be promptly reported to the healthcare provider for appropriate management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because weight gain, dry cough, and increased appetite are not typically associated with furosemide use and are not concerning side effects that require immediate reporting to the provider.

4. A client with heart failure is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. The nurse should reinforce which instruction?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime.
• B. Report a persistent dry cough.
• C. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet.
• D. Avoid taking the medication with meals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to report a persistent dry cough. ACE inhibitors can cause a common side effect of a persistent dry cough, which should be promptly reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and possible medication adjustment. Option A is incorrect because the timing of ACE inhibitor administration is usually not specified to be at bedtime. Option C is incorrect as increasing potassium-rich foods can lead to hyperkalemia when taking ACE inhibitors. Option D is incorrect because ACE inhibitors can be taken with or without food.

5. A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor which laboratory test to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation, the nurse should assess the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) levels. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client's anticoagulation levels are within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it reflects the level of fibrinogen in the blood, which is involved in the clotting process.

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