Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a postpartum client who is 1 day post-delivery. Which finding would require immediate intervention?

• A. Lochia rubra with a few small clots
• B. Fundus firm and midline
• C. Temperature of 100.4°F (38°C)
• D. Saturated perineal pad in 15 minutes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A saturated perineal pad in 15 minutes indicates excessive bleeding, known as postpartum hemorrhage, which is a critical condition requiring immediate intervention to prevent further complications like hypovolemic shock. Monitoring and managing postpartum bleeding are crucial in the early postpartum period to ensure the client's safety and well-being. The other options are normal postpartum findings: lochia rubra with a few small clots is expected in the early postpartum period, a firm and midline fundus indicates proper uterine contraction, and a temperature of 100.4°F (38°C) is within the normal range for the postpartum period.

2. A postpartum client is being discharged and asks the nurse when she should expect her menstrual period to return if she is not breastfeeding. The nurse's best response is:

• A. In about 6 to 8 weeks
• B. In about 3 to 4 months
• C. In about 6 months
• D. In about 1 year

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For non-breastfeeding mothers, the return of menstrual periods typically occurs around 6 to 8 weeks postpartum. This timeframe may vary among individuals, but generally, hormonal changes after childbirth lead to the resumption of menstrual cycles within this period.

3. In contrast to the contractions associated with true labor, Braxton-Hicks contractions:

• A. generally follow rupture of the amniotic sac and occur with regularity.
• B. may be intensified by activity and are accompanied by a pink discharge.
• C. do not increase in intensity and are alleviated by a change in position.
• D. consistently become stronger and are not alleviated by changing position.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Braxton-Hicks contractions are irregular and usually do not increase in intensity. Unlike true labor contractions, they tend to alleviate with a change in position, making option C the correct choice. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Braxton-Hicks contractions do not follow rupture of the amniotic sac, are not intensified by activity or accompanied by a pink discharge, and do not consistently become stronger or are not alleviated by changing position.

4. Adoley has been presented at the OPD with the following clinical manifestations: crying easily, short attention span, inability to sit still, fatigue but unable to sleep at night, excessive sweating, increased heart rate, and blood pressure. Which of the following will be the appropriate diagnosis for Adoley?

• A. Autism
• B. Hyperthyroidism
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Pneumonia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The symptoms described in the case, such as excessive sweating, increased heart rate, and inability to sleep, are indicative of hyperthyroidism. Hyperthyroidism is characterized by an overactive thyroid gland, leading to symptoms like increased heart rate, sweating, and difficulty sleeping, which align with Adoley's clinical manifestations. Therefore, the appropriate diagnosis for Adoley would be hyperthyroidism.

5. How will a ventricular septal defect affect blood flow?

• A. Blood will shunt left to right, causing increased pulmonary flow and no cyanosis.
• B. Blood will shunt right to left, causing decreased pulmonary flow and cyanosis.
• C. No shunting occurs due to high pressure in the left ventricle.
• D. Increased pressure in the left atrium hinders the circulation of oxygenated blood in the circulating volume.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A ventricular septal defect allows blood to shunt left to right, leading to increased pulmonary flow. This results in oxygenated blood mixing with deoxygenated blood, causing no cyanosis as the mixed blood is still oxygenated. The shunting from left to right overloads the pulmonary circulation, leading to increased pulmonary flow. Choice B is incorrect because blood does not shunt right to left in a ventricular septal defect. Choice C is incorrect as shunting does occur due to the pressure differences between the ventricles. Choice D is incorrect because the defect affects the ventricles, not the atrium, and does not hinder the circulation of oxygenated blood in the circulating volume.

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