Nursing Elites

1. Following delivery of a newborn and placenta, you note that the mother has moderate vaginal bleeding. The mother is conscious and alert, and her vital signs are stable. Treatment for her should include:

• A. carefully packing the vagina with sterile dressings.
• B. massaging the uterus if signs of shock develop.
• C. treating her for shock and providing rapid transport.
• D. administering oxygen and massaging the uterus.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering oxygen and massaging the uterus are appropriate interventions to manage postpartum bleeding. Oxygen helps support tissue perfusion, and uterine massage can aid in uterine contraction, controlling bleeding. These actions are indicated when the mother experiences moderate vaginal bleeding post-delivery, as described in the scenario. Careful monitoring for signs of shock should continue while these interventions are implemented to ensure the mother's condition remains stable. Choices A and B are incorrect because packing the vagina with sterile dressings is not recommended for postpartum bleeding unless it is severe and immediate action is needed, while massaging the uterus is a proactive approach and should not be delayed until signs of shock develop. Choice C is also incorrect as rapid transport is not the primary intervention in this scenario where the mother is conscious, alert, and stable, and the focus should be on immediate management of the bleeding.

2. A child with type 1 diabetes mellitus is brought to the emergency department by the mother, who states that the child has been complaining of abdominal pain and has been lethargic. Diabetic ketoacidosis is diagnosed. Anticipating the plan of care, the nurse prepares to administer which type of intravenous (IV) infusion?

• A. 5% dextrose infusion
• B. Normal saline infusion
• C. NPH insulin infusion
• D. Potassium infusion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the management of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the initial intravenous (IV) fluid of choice is normal saline infusion. Normal saline helps to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances commonly seen in DKA patients. It does not contain glucose to prevent worsening hyperglycemia or ketoacidosis. NPH insulin infusion is not the initial treatment for DKA; it is typically used after fluid resuscitation. Potassium infusion may be required in DKA to address electrolyte imbalances, but normal saline is the priority for fluid resuscitation.

3. Which of the following statements regarding two-rescuer child CPR is correct?

• A. The chest should be compressed with one hand, and a compression-to-ventilation ratio of 30:2 should be delivered.
• B. A compression-to-ventilation ratio of 15:2 should be delivered with pauses in compressions to give ventilations.
• C. The chest should be allowed to fully recoil between compressions to optimize venous return.
• D. Compress the chest with one or two hands to a depth equal to one third the diameter of the chest.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In two-rescuer child CPR, the correct compression depth is one third the diameter of the chest. This depth can be achieved by compressing the chest with one or two hands. It is crucial to follow the correct compression depth guideline to ensure effective chest compressions and circulation during CPR for a child.

4. A 3-year-old boy is found to be in cardiopulmonary arrest. As you begin one-rescuer CPR, your partner prepares the AED. What is the appropriate compression to ventilation ratio for this child?

• A. 3:01
• B. 30:2
• C. 15:2
• D. 5:1

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct compression to ventilation ratio for a single rescuer performing CPR on a child is 30:2. This ratio ensures adequate circulation and oxygenation during CPR. 30 compressions help maintain blood flow, while 2 rescue breaths provide oxygenation. Choice A (3:01) is incorrect as it does not follow the standard CPR guidelines for children. Choice C (15:2) is incorrect as it is the ratio used for adult CPR. Choice D (5:1) is incorrect as it is not the recommended ratio for child CPR.

5. A 30-year-old woman is 22 weeks pregnant with her first child. She tells you that her rings are not fitting as loosely as they usually do and that her ankles are swollen. Her blood pressure is 150/86 mm Hg. She is MOST likely experiencing:

• A. a condition unrelated to pregnancy.
• B. gestational diabetes.
• C. a hypertensive emergency.
• D. preeclampsia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The symptoms of swollen ankles, tight rings, and elevated blood pressure in a pregnant woman at 22 weeks gestation are concerning for preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and signs of organ damage, commonly seen with symptoms such as swelling (edema) and protein in the urine. It is crucial to monitor and manage preeclampsia promptly as it can lead to severe complications for both the mother and the baby.

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