Nursing Elites

1. What is a non-pharmacological management option for measles?

• A. Tepid sponging
• B. Oral hygiene
• C. Eye care
• D. N/A

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tepid sponging is a non-pharmacological management option for measles. It helps reduce fever and discomfort by using lukewarm water to gently sponge the body. This method is commonly used to alleviate symptoms associated with measles. Oral hygiene and eye care are important for overall health but do not directly manage measles symptoms like tepid sponging does. Choice D, N/A, is incorrect as there are non-pharmacological management options available for measles.

2. Which of the following are not infectious causes of diarrhea?

• A. Allergy
• B. Bacteria
• C. Parasite
• D. Virus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Diarrhea can be caused by various infectious agents such as bacteria, parasites, and viruses. Allergy, on the other hand, is a non-infectious cause of diarrhea. When an individual with a food allergy consumes the specific food they are allergic to, it can trigger diarrhea as a part of the allergic reaction.

3. Based on the complaints provided by Madam KK, is the child exhibiting danger signs?

• A. Yes
• B. No
• C. I don't know
• D. Yes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Yes, the child is displaying danger signs with symptoms such as fever and rapid breathing, indicating a potential serious health issue that requires immediate attention. The correct answer is 'Yes' because the symptoms described in Madam KK's complaints align with danger signs that suggest a severe health problem. Choices B and C are incorrect because the symptoms mentioned clearly indicate the presence of danger signs. Choice D is a duplicate of choice A and does not provide a valid alternative.

4. A 30-year-old woman is 22 weeks pregnant with her first child. She tells you that her rings are not fitting as loosely as they usually do and that her ankles are swollen. Her blood pressure is 150/86 mm Hg. She is MOST likely experiencing:

• A. a condition unrelated to pregnancy.
• B. gestational diabetes.
• C. a hypertensive emergency.
• D. preeclampsia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The symptoms of swollen ankles, tight rings, and elevated blood pressure in a pregnant woman at 22 weeks gestation are concerning for preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and signs of organ damage, commonly seen with symptoms such as swelling (edema) and protein in the urine. It is crucial to monitor and manage preeclampsia promptly as it can lead to severe complications for both the mother and the baby.

5. The caregiver is teaching a new parent about signs of adequate breastfeeding. Which statement by the parent indicates understanding?

• A. My baby should have a bowel movement once a week.
• B. My baby should wet at least six diapers a day.
• C. My baby should feed for 5 minutes on each breast.
• D. My baby should sleep through the night without waking up to feed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Wetting at least six diapers a day is a key indicator of adequate breastfeeding as it shows that the baby is properly hydrated and receiving enough milk.

Similar Questions