the non pharmacological management of measles include
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI Pediatric Medications Test

1. What is a non-pharmacological management option for measles?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tepid sponging is a non-pharmacological management option for measles. It helps reduce fever and discomfort by using lukewarm water to gently sponge the body. This method is commonly used to alleviate symptoms associated with measles. Oral hygiene and eye care are important for overall health but do not directly manage measles symptoms like tepid sponging does. Choice D, N/A, is incorrect as there are non-pharmacological management options available for measles.

2. Which of the following is MOST likely to occur in conjunction with a breech presentation?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a breech presentation, where the baby's buttocks or feet present first, there is an increased risk of the umbilical cord slipping down alongside or below the presenting part, leading to a prolapsed umbilical cord. This is a serious complication that can compromise fetal blood flow and oxygenation, necessitating prompt intervention to prevent adverse outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to occur in conjunction with a breech presentation. Vertex presentation is the normal head-first presentation, maternal hypertension is a separate condition that may not be directly related to fetal presentation, and premature rupture of the amniotic sac can happen independently of the baby's presentation.

3. How will a ventricular septal defect affect blood flow?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A ventricular septal defect allows blood to shunt left to right, leading to increased pulmonary flow. This results in oxygenated blood mixing with deoxygenated blood, causing no cyanosis as the mixed blood is still oxygenated. The shunting from left to right overloads the pulmonary circulation, leading to increased pulmonary flow. Choice B is incorrect because blood does not shunt right to left in a ventricular septal defect. Choice C is incorrect as shunting does occur due to the pressure differences between the ventricles. Choice D is incorrect because the defect affects the ventricles, not the atrium, and does not hinder the circulation of oxygenated blood in the circulating volume.

4. A toddler is admitted to the hospital because of sudden hoarseness, holding or pointing to their neck, and continuous cough. The nurse will be particularly concerned about:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a toddler presenting with sudden hoarseness, holding or pointing to their neck, and continuous cough, the nurse should be particularly concerned about respiratory tract obstruction caused by a foreign body. These symptoms are indicative of a possible foreign body in the airway, which can lead to serious complications and requires immediate attention to ensure the toddler's airway remains patent and unobstructed.

5. When managing Akosua Adepa, an eight-year-old diagnosed with Asthma, the nurse will consider the following as complications EXCEPT:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When managing a pediatric patient with asthma, the nurse needs to be vigilant about potential complications. While cor pulmonale, respiratory arrest, and respiratory failure are known complications of asthma, respiratory distress is not typically considered a direct complication. Respiratory distress is more of a symptom or a sign of worsening asthma, indicating the need for immediate intervention to prevent progression to more severe complications.

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