the non pharmacological management of measles include
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI Pediatric Medications Test

1. What is a non-pharmacological management option for measles?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tepid sponging is a non-pharmacological management option for measles. It helps reduce fever and discomfort by using lukewarm water to gently sponge the body. This method is commonly used to alleviate symptoms associated with measles. Oral hygiene and eye care are important for overall health but do not directly manage measles symptoms like tepid sponging does. Choice D, N/A, is incorrect as there are non-pharmacological management options available for measles.

2. What is the proper depth of chest compressions for a 9-month-old infant?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When performing chest compressions on a 9-month-old infant, the proper depth is 1/3 the diameter of the chest, which equates to approximately 1 1/2 inches. This depth is crucial for effective cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) in infants. Choice B, which suggests 1/4 the diameter of the chest or about 1 inch, is incorrect as it does not provide the recommended depth for infants. Choice C, stating 1/2 the diameter of the chest or about 2 inches, is too deep and may cause harm to the infant. Choice D, mentioning 1/3 the diameter of the chest or about 3/4 inch, is also incorrect as it underestimates the required depth for effective chest compressions on a 9-month-old infant.

3. Based on the complaints provided by Madam KK, is the child exhibiting danger signs?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Yes, the child is displaying danger signs with symptoms such as fever and rapid breathing, indicating a potential serious health issue that requires immediate attention. The correct answer is 'Yes' because the symptoms described in Madam KK's complaints align with danger signs that suggest a severe health problem. Choices B and C are incorrect because the symptoms mentioned clearly indicate the presence of danger signs. Choice D is a duplicate of choice A and does not provide a valid alternative.

4. What is the term for a condition where there is a failure of the pituitary to produce sufficient growth hormone to sustain normal growth in children, with 80% of cases being idiopathic? It may present with familial patterns, affecting males more than females.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Growth hormone deficiency refers to a condition where there is inadequate production of growth hormone by the pituitary gland. This results in impaired growth in children. While 80% of cases are of unknown cause (idiopathic), some may have familial patterns. It is more common in males than females. Cretinism is a condition of severe hypothyroidism during infancy, not related to growth hormone. Hypothyroidism is a disorder involving low thyroid hormone levels, and precocious puberty is the early onset of puberty. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Growth hormone deficiency.'

5. When assessing a 5-year-old boy with major trauma, his blood pressure is 70/40 mm Hg, and his pulse rate is 140 beats/min and weak. The child's blood pressure:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a 5-year-old boy with major trauma, a blood pressure of 70/40 mm Hg and a pulse rate of 140 beats/min, and weak, indicate decompensated shock. This presentation signifies inadequate perfusion, leading to compensatory mechanisms being overwhelmed, resulting in decompensated shock. Choice B is incorrect as the vital signs suggest the body is unable to adequately compensate for the trauma. Choice C is incorrect as the vital signs are more indicative of shock rather than increased intracranial pressure. Choice D is incorrect as such low blood pressure is not appropriate for a child of this age and indicates a critical condition.

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