Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who is 2 hours old. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Acrocyanosis
• B. Respiratory rate of 60 breaths per minute
• C. Grunting with nasal flaring
• D. Heart rate of 140 beats per minute

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Grunting with nasal flaring is a concerning sign of respiratory distress in a newborn that can indicate inadequate oxygenation. This finding requires immediate intervention to ensure the newborn's respiratory status is stabilized and to prevent further complications. Prompt assessment and appropriate intervention are crucial in such cases to prevent respiratory compromise and potential deterioration. Acrocyanosis, which is bluish discoloration of the extremities, is a common finding in newborns and usually resolves on its own. A respiratory rate of 60 breaths per minute and a heart rate of 140 beats per minute are within normal ranges for a newborn and do not indicate immediate intervention is needed.

2. You arrive at a residence shortly after a 4-year-old boy experienced an apparent febrile seizure. The child is alert and crying. His skin is flushed, hot, and moist. His mother tells you that the seizure lasted about 2 minutes. You should:

• A. provide supportive care and transport.
• B. give him acetaminophen or ibuprofen.
• C. begin rapid cooling measures at once.
• D. allow the mother to take her child to the doctor.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After a febrile seizure, the recommended course of action is to provide supportive care and transport the child to a medical facility. Supportive care may include ensuring a safe environment, monitoring the child, and seeking medical evaluation to determine the underlying cause of the seizure and appropriate management.

3. Which of the following statements regarding 2-rescuer child CPR is correct?

• A. The chest should be compressed with one hand, and a compression-to-ventilation ratio of 30:2 should be used.
• B. The chest should not be allowed to fully recoil in between compressions.
• C. A compression-to-ventilation ratio of 15:2 should be used if an advanced airway is in place.
• D. Compress the chest with one or two hands to a depth equal to one-third the diameter of the chest.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During 2-rescuer child CPR, it is important to compress the chest with one or two hands to a depth equal to one-third the diameter of the chest. This technique ensures effective chest compressions are being delivered to help circulate blood and oxygenate the child's body. Choice A is incorrect because both hands should be used for chest compressions in 2-rescuer CPR. Choice B is incorrect as allowing the chest to fully recoil between compressions is essential to create negative pressure and facilitate blood flow back to the heart. Choice C is incorrect as the standard compression-to-ventilation ratio for child CPR is 30:2, regardless of whether an advanced airway is in place.

4. How would you classify a child at two years of age who has fast breathing without chest indrawing or stridor when calm?

• A. Very severe disease
• B. Pneumonia
• C. No pneumonia
• D. Local infection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In pediatric clinical assessment, a child at two years of age with fast breathing but without chest indrawing or stridor when calm is classified as having pneumonia. Fast breathing in this context is a key symptom used in the Integrated Management of Childhood Illness (IMCI) guidelines to diagnose pneumonia in children under five years old. The absence of chest indrawing or stridor when the child is calm helps differentiate this case from other respiratory conditions, making pneumonia the likely classification. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. 'Very severe disease' is too broad and not specific to the symptoms described. 'No pneumonia' is also incorrect as the symptoms match the presentation of pneumonia. 'Local infection' is too vague and does not specifically address the respiratory symptoms observed.

5. Which of the following is MOST likely to occur in conjunction with a breech presentation?

• A. Vertex presentation
• B. Maternal hypertension
• C. Prolapsed umbilical cord
• D. Premature rupture of the amniotic sac

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a breech presentation, where the baby's buttocks or feet present first, there is an increased risk of the umbilical cord slipping down alongside or below the presenting part, leading to a prolapsed umbilical cord. This is a serious complication that can compromise fetal blood flow and oxygenation, necessitating prompt intervention to prevent adverse outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to occur in conjunction with a breech presentation. Vertex presentation is the normal head-first presentation, maternal hypertension is a separate condition that may not be directly related to fetal presentation, and premature rupture of the amniotic sac can happen independently of the baby's presentation.

Similar Questions