Nursing Elites

1. After the baby's head delivers, how is it usually tilted?

• A. with the face up.
• B. anteriorly, with the chin up.
• C. posteriorly, to one side.
• D. posteriorly, face down.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After the baby's head delivers, it is typically tilted posteriorly to one side to help facilitate the delivery of the shoulders. This positioning is important for the safe and smooth delivery of the baby.

2. A new parent reports to the nurse that the baby looks cross-eyed several times a day. The nurse teaches the parents that this finding should resolve in how long?

• A. 2 months
• B. 2 weeks
• C. 1 year
• D. 4 months

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Transient strabismus, causing the baby to look cross-eyed, is due to poor neuromuscular control of the eye muscles. This condition typically resolves on its own within 3 to 4 months as the infant's neuromuscular control improves. Parents should be reassured that this is a common and temporary issue in infants. Choice A is incorrect as it is too long for the resolution of transient strabismus. Choice B is incorrect as 2 weeks is too short for resolution. Choice C is incorrect as 1 year is too long for transient strabismus to resolve.

3. Upon assessing a newborn immediately after delivery, you note that the infant is breathing spontaneously and has a heart rate of 80 beats/min. What is the MOST appropriate initial management for this newborn?

• A. Assess the newborn's skin condition and color.
• B. Initiate positive-pressure ventilations.
• C. Start chest compressions and contact medical control.
• D. Provide blow-by oxygen with oxygen tubing.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a newborn with a heart rate below 100 beats/min, the most appropriate initial management is to initiate positive-pressure ventilations. This helps support the newborn's respiratory effort and oxygenation in the setting of a low heart rate, ensuring adequate oxygen supply to vital organs. Assessing the skin condition and color, starting chest compressions, or providing blow-by oxygen are not the priority in this scenario where respiratory support is crucial.

4. When assessing a geriatric patient who has possibly experienced an acute ischemic stroke, which of the following questions would be MOST appropriate to ask?

• A. When did you first notice the symptoms?
• B. Do you have a history of high blood pressure?
• C. What medications do you take and why?
• D. Have you previously had a heart attack?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate question to ask when assessing a geriatric patient who may have experienced an acute ischemic stroke is when the symptoms were first noticed. This information is crucial for determining the time window for potential treatments like thrombolytic therapy, as prompt intervention is necessary for stroke management. Option B is not as relevant in the acute assessment of stroke, though important for overall health history. Option C is important but may not be as time-sensitive as determining symptom onset. Option D focuses on a different cardiac event, not directly related to the current concern of a possible stroke.

5. When evaluating a client's fluid intake and output record, how should fluid intake and urine output relate?

• A. Fluid intake should double the urine output
• B. Fluid intake should be approximately equal to the urine output
• C. Fluid intake should be half the urine output
• D. Fluid intake should be inversely proportional to the urine output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In assessing a client's fluid intake and output record, it is essential for fluid intake to be approximately equal to the urine output. This balance indicates proper hydration and renal function. Deviations from this balance could signify potential issues that need further investigation and management.

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