Nursing Elites

1. The nurse has completed the admission assessment of a client and has determined that the client's body mass index (BMI) is 33.5 kg/m2. What health promotion advice should the nurse provide to the client?

• A. It would be very helpful if you could integrate more physical activity into your routine.
• B. You're considered to be overweight, so you should be diligent about maintaining a healthy diet.
• C. You might want to consider some of the surgical options that have been developed for treating obesity.
• D. With your permission, I'd like you to refer to a support group for individuals who live with severe obesity.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increasing physical activity is a key component of managing BMI and overall health.

2. A client in labor states, 'I think my water just broke!' The nurse notes that the umbilical cord is on the perineum. What action should the nurse perform first?

• A. Administer oxygen via face mask.
• B. Notify the operating room team.
• C. Place the client in Trendelenburg.
• D. Administer a fluid bolus of 500 ml.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to place the client in Trendelenburg position. This position helps alleviate pressure on the umbilical cord, preventing compression and ensuring continued blood flow to the fetus. Administering oxygen, notifying the operating room team, or administering a fluid bolus are not the initial priority actions in a cord prolapse situation.

3. A client admitted with a diagnosis of sepsis has a central venous pressure (CVP) of 15 mm Hg. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer a fluid bolus of 500 ml.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• C. Administer a diuretic.
• D. Continue to monitor the CVP.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A CVP of 15 mm Hg is higher than normal, indicating possible fluid overload or heart failure, which needs immediate attention. Notifying the healthcare provider is crucial as they can evaluate the client's condition, order appropriate interventions, and prevent potential complications.

4. What side effect should be monitored for in a patient with chronic heart failure taking spironolactone?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used in patients with heart failure. One of the potential side effects of spironolactone therapy is hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. Hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias, making it crucial for healthcare providers to monitor potassium levels closely. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hypokalemia (low potassium levels), hyponatremia (low sodium levels), and hypernatremia (high sodium levels) are not typically associated with spironolactone use in patients with chronic heart failure.

5. During an assessment, a healthcare professional suspects a client has cholecystitis. What is a common symptom of this condition?

• A. Right upper quadrant pain
• B. Left lower quadrant pain
• C. Generalized abdominal pain
• D. Epigastric pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Right upper quadrant pain is a hallmark symptom of cholecystitis, indicating inflammation of the gallbladder. The gallbladder is typically located in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen, so pain in this area is characteristic of cholecystitis. This pain may be sharp or cramp-like and can be accompanied by other symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and fever. Left lower quadrant pain (choice B) is more commonly associated with diverticulitis, generalized abdominal pain (choice C) can be seen in various conditions, and epigastric pain (choice D) is typically related to issues in the upper central part of the abdomen, such as gastritis or peptic ulcers, rather than cholecystitis.

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