a clients telemetry monitor indicates the sudden onset of ventricular fibrillation which assessment finding should the nurse anticipate
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1. A client's telemetry monitor indicates the sudden onset of ventricular fibrillation. Which assessment finding should the nurse anticipate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ventricular fibrillation is a life-threatening arrhythmia characterized by chaotic, asynchronous contractions of the ventricles, resulting in ineffective cardiac output. This leads to the absence of a palpable pulse. Nurses should be prepared to initiate immediate interventions such as defibrillation to restore normal cardiac rhythm in a client experiencing ventricular fibrillation.

2. A client is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Deep, rapid respirations (Kussmaul breathing). This is a sign of severe acidosis commonly seen in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and requires immediate intervention. Kussmaul breathing helps to compensate for the metabolic acidosis by blowing off carbon dioxide. Prompt intervention is necessary to prevent further deterioration and potential respiratory failure. Fruity breath odor (Choice A) is a classic sign of DKA but does not require immediate intervention. While a blood glucose level of 450 mg/dL (Choice B) is high, it does not pose an immediate threat to the client's life. Serum potassium of 5.2 mEq/L (Choice D) is slightly elevated but not the most critical finding that requires immediate intervention in this scenario.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with COPD receiving oxygen therapy is to use oxygen continuously, even while sleeping. This is important to ensure adequate oxygenation and optimal respiratory function for clients with COPD. Continuous oxygen therapy helps maintain oxygen levels during sleep, which is crucial for individuals with COPD who may experience nighttime hypoxemia. Therefore, advising the client to use oxygen continuously, even during sleep, is essential in managing COPD and preventing complications associated with oxygen deprivation.

4. What is the primary advantage of prescribing rivaroxaban over warfarin for a patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary advantage of prescribing rivaroxaban over warfarin for a patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is that rivaroxaban does not require regular INR monitoring. This eliminates the need for frequent blood tests to adjust the dosage, making it more convenient for patients to manage their anticoagulant therapy.

5. In a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receiving erythropoietin therapy, what laboratory result should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hemoglobin level. Erythropoietin therapy is used to stimulate red blood cell production in patients with chronic kidney disease who often develop anemia due to reduced erythropoietin production by the kidneys. Monitoring the hemoglobin level is essential to evaluate the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy as an increase in hemoglobin indicates improved red blood cell production and better management of anemia in these patients. Serum creatinine, white blood cell count, and serum potassium levels are important parameters to monitor in CKD patients but are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy for managing anemia.

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