Nursing Elites

1. A client's telemetry monitor indicates the sudden onset of ventricular fibrillation. Which assessment finding should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Bounding erratic pulse.
• B. Regularly irregular pulse.
• C. Thready irregular pulse.
• D. No palpable pulse.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ventricular fibrillation is a life-threatening arrhythmia characterized by chaotic, asynchronous contractions of the ventricles, resulting in ineffective cardiac output. This leads to the absence of a palpable pulse. Nurses should be prepared to initiate immediate interventions such as defibrillation to restore normal cardiac rhythm in a client experiencing ventricular fibrillation.

2. A healthcare professional is interested in studying the incidence of infant death in a particular city and wants to compare that city's rate to the state's rate. What state resource is most likely to provide this information?

• A. Disease registry.
• B. Department of Health.
• C. Bureau of Vital Statistics.
• D. Census data.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Bureau of Vital Statistics collects data on births and deaths, including infant mortality rates. This data is crucial for healthcare professionals to analyze and compare rates between different regions.

3. A client is receiving chemotherapy and is at risk for neutropenia. Which precaution should the nurse implement?

• A. Encourage regular visitors to boost morale.
• B. Ensure the client receives live vaccines.
• C. Place the client in a private room.
• D. Provide a diet high in fresh fruits and vegetables.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing the client in a private room is crucial to protect them from infections due to their compromised immune system. Neutropenia, a common side effect of chemotherapy, decreases white blood cell count, making the client more susceptible to infections. By placing the client in a private room, exposure to pathogens from other individuals is minimized, reducing the risk of infection and helping maintain the client's health during this vulnerable period.

4. When evaluating a client's understanding of wearing a Holter monitor, which statement made by the client would indicate to the nurse that the client understands the procedure?

• A. I must record any symptoms occurring with my activity.
• B. I am not looking forward to staying in bed for 24 hours.
• C. I really am dreading the frequent blood drawing.
• D. I know that I shouldn't get close to my microwave oven.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Recording symptoms that occur with activity is crucial when wearing a Holter monitor. This information helps in correlating symptoms with cardiac events, aiding in the diagnosis and treatment of the client's condition. The client's understanding of this aspect demonstrates comprehension of the procedure and its purpose.

5. A patient with chronic heart failure is prescribed furosemide. What is the primary action of this medication?

• A. Increase cardiac output
• B. Reduce fluid retention
• C. Decrease heart rate
• D. Lower blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts by inhibiting sodium and chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle, leading to increased diuresis. By reducing fluid retention, furosemide helps decrease the workload on the heart in patients with chronic heart failure. This medication does not directly increase cardiac output, decrease heart rate, or lower blood pressure as its primary action.

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