Nursing Elites

1. What are the MOST important initial steps in assessing and managing a newborn?

• A. Drying and warming the infant, obtaining an APGAR score.
• B. Clearing the airway, keeping the infant warm.
• C. Suctioning the airway, obtaining a heart rate.
• D. Keeping the infant warm, counting respirations.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most crucial initial steps in assessing and managing a newborn involve clearing the airway to ensure proper breathing and keeping the infant warm to maintain body temperature. Airway clearance helps prevent respiratory distress, while warmth is essential to prevent hypothermia, a common issue in newborns. These steps are vital in the immediate care of a newborn to support their transition to extrauterine life and ensure their well-being. Choice A is incorrect because obtaining an APGAR score is important but not as critical as clearing the airway. Choice C is incorrect as suctioning the airway is not always necessary and obtaining a heart rate is secondary to ensuring a clear airway and warmth. Choice D is incorrect because counting respirations is not as immediate and crucial as clearing the airway.

2. Which of the following is MOST likely to occur in conjunction with a breech presentation?

• A. Vertex presentation
• B. Maternal hypertension
• C. Prolapsed umbilical cord
• D. Premature rupture of the amniotic sac

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a breech presentation, where the baby's buttocks or feet present first, there is an increased risk of the umbilical cord slipping down alongside or below the presenting part, leading to a prolapsed umbilical cord. This is a serious complication that can compromise fetal blood flow and oxygenation, necessitating prompt intervention to prevent adverse outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to occur in conjunction with a breech presentation. Vertex presentation is the normal head-first presentation, maternal hypertension is a separate condition that may not be directly related to fetal presentation, and premature rupture of the amniotic sac can happen independently of the baby's presentation.

3. Atta, who weighs 20kg, has been prescribed amoxicillin 500 mg b.i.d. The drug information indicates a daily dose of amoxicillin at 50 mg/kg/day in two divided doses. What is the safest dose in milligrams for this child?

• A. 1000 mg
• B. 750 mg
• C. 500 mg
• D. 250 mg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the safest dose of amoxicillin for Atta, we multiply the weight (20kg) by the daily dose (50 mg/kg/day) which equals 1000 mg/day. Since the dose is to be given in two divided doses, the safest dose for each administration would be 500 mg. Therefore, the correct answer is 1000 mg, as it aligns with the prescribed dose for this child based on weight and dosing guidelines. Choice B, 750 mg, is incorrect as it does not match the calculated daily dose. Choice C, 500 mg, is incorrect as it represents the safest dose for each administration, not the total daily dose. Choice D, 250 mg, is incorrect as it is below the calculated daily dose required for the child.

4. What is the leading cause of death in geriatric patients?

• A. Hypertension.
• B. Arthritis.
• C. Heart disease.
• D. Altered mental status.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Heart disease is the leading cause of death in geriatric patients. It encompasses a range of conditions affecting the heart and blood vessels, such as coronary artery disease and heart failure, which are more prevalent in older individuals. These conditions can lead to serious complications and ultimately result in higher mortality rates among the elderly population. Hypertension (choice A) is a risk factor for heart disease but not the leading cause of death in geriatric patients. Arthritis (choice B) is a chronic condition affecting the joints, not a primary cause of death in this population. Altered mental status (choice D) is a symptom rather than a leading cause of death in geriatric patients.

5. When assessing a 6-year-old boy with pain in the right lower quadrant of his abdomen, which action should be performed first?

• A. Avoiding palpation of the abdomen.
• B. Palpating the right lower quadrant first.
• C. Auscultating bowel sounds for 2 minutes.
• D. Palpating the left upper quadrant first.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Palpating the left upper quadrant first is the correct approach when assessing abdominal pain in a child. This method helps to minimize causing additional discomfort to the child and allows for a more accurate assessment of their reaction to palpation. By starting on the left upper quadrant, you can gauge the child's pain response before moving to the area of complaint, which may be more sensitive. This approach is essential for a thorough and less distressing abdominal assessment in pediatric patients.

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