Nursing Elites

1. A postpartum client is concerned about hair loss. The nurse explains that this is:

• A. A sign of nutritional deficiency
• B. A temporary condition due to hormonal changes
• C. An indication of a thyroid disorder
• D. A result of poor hair care during pregnancy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hair loss postpartum is a common temporary condition caused by hormonal changes that occur after giving birth. This condition is known as postpartum alopecia and is a normal part of the postpartum period. It is important for the nurse to reassure the client that this hair loss is temporary and usually resolves on its own without the need for medical intervention. Choice A is incorrect because postpartum hair loss is primarily due to hormonal changes rather than nutritional deficiency. Choice C is incorrect as thyroid disorder is not typically the cause of postpartum hair loss. Choice D is incorrect as poor hair care during pregnancy does not cause postpartum hair loss.

2. A postpartum client asks the nurse about resuming sexual activity. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. You can resume sexual activity as soon as you feel ready.
• B. It is best to wait until your postpartum check-up before resuming sexual activity.
• C. You should wait at least 6 weeks before resuming sexual activity.
• D. It is safe to resume sexual activity once your lochia has stopped.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to advise the postpartum client to wait until the postpartum check-up before resuming sexual activity. This allows for complete healing to ensure the client's well-being and provides an opportunity to address any concerns with the healthcare provider. Choice A is incorrect because resuming sexual activity should be based on medical advice rather than personal readiness. Choice C is incorrect as the 6-week recommendation is a general guideline but individual circumstances may vary. Choice D is incorrect as the cessation of lochia is not the sole indicator for safe resumption of sexual activity.

3. What is the appropriate amount of fluid to be administered per hour using an infusion pump?

• A. 108.3mL
• B. 68.75mL
• C. 58.3mL
• D. 1400mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 108.3mL. This amount is calculated based on the total daily fluid requirement, ensuring a consistent infusion rate over the hour.

4. Serwaa, a 26-year-old mother, has brought her daughter to the OPD with signs of lower respiratory tract infection. Which of the following diagnoses is NOT typically associated with lower respiratory tract infections for her daughter?

• A. Pneumonia
• B. Asthma
• C. Bronchiolitis
• D. Coryza

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Coryza, also known as the common cold, is a viral infection that primarily affects the upper respiratory tract and is not typically associated with lower respiratory tract infections. Pneumonia, asthma, and bronchiolitis are conditions that commonly affect the lower respiratory tract, causing symptoms like cough, difficulty breathing, and chest pain.

5. The healthcare provider assesses the newborn's ears to be parallel to the outer and inner canthus of the eye. The healthcare provider documents this finding to be which of the following?

• A. A normal position
• B. A possible chromosomal abnormality
• C. Facial paralysis
• D. Prematurity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When the top of the ear (pinna) is parallel to the outer and inner canthus of the eye, it is considered a normal position in a newborn. This alignment is an important assessment to ensure normal development and anatomy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the parallel alignment of the ears to the outer and inner canthus of the eye is not indicative of a possible chromosomal abnormality, facial paralysis, or prematurity. It is simply a normal anatomical finding in a newborn.

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